Romans 1: 24-27 Which says:
24) Therefore God, in keeping with the desires of their hearts, gave them up to uncleanness, that their bodies might be dishonored among them, 25) even those who exchanged the truth of God for the lie and venerated and rendered sacred service to the creation rather than the One who created, who is blessed forever. Amen. 26) That is why God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; 27) and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full recompense, which was due for their error.
Well if you were a bisexual male, you didn't really leave the natural use of a woman.
2007-03-06 09:14:46 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Well, I would actually disagree with this translation overall, because lust isn't really an accurate translation of the Greek word. It only became associated with lust once a word descended from this root was used in French language, a long time later. It also does not say anything about contrary to nature, the phrase is actually παρα φυσιν, which means in excess, beyond or above what is natural. παρα has to do with proximity and the only translation of it being "against" would not have anything to do with being contrary, but rather being next to, on top of, above. It's a pretty obvious translation error.
However, even if you go with the translation posted, it is not saying that these practices are sinful, it is saying that these practices are looked down upon by society, and God let them do these things which earned them scorn because they committed the sin of idolatry. So, if you believe this is talking about homosexual or bisexual behaviour, it is not talking about it as a sin, but rather as punishment for a sin, because society (not God) doesn't like these sexual practices.
2007-03-06 09:36:52 · answer #1 · answered by Geoffrey J 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is true and I read it. The bible basically is stating that homosexuality was never persecuted against. He was just saying in simple terms, that he could not use the homosexual lifestyle to populate the earth. If he told me and I was gay that he was just gonna hand me over to the devil, then that basically tells me he has no use for me even if i were a hypocrite too. These two sins that people indulge in makes them unusable by God. God made us to do his gloriful work. We have a will to serve him or not. It is up to us. the meaning of free will and I quote "to do as one desires and not listen to anyone." In other words do as you please. That is the free will. God even has it. He copied it and pasted it into our body and soul. There that is a good answer.
2007-03-06 09:32:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
According to The Bible sex is reserved for marriage.
Between a man and a woman.
2007-03-06 09:24:03 · answer #3 · answered by timjim 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Using the Bible to regulate your sex life makes about as much sense as using "Penthouse" to regulate your spiritual life.
2007-03-06 09:20:44 · answer #4 · answered by catrionn 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You can dress it up anyway you want and attempt to alter the meaning, it says what it says and its SIN.
2007-03-06 10:06:56 · answer #5 · answered by drg5609 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
... still looking for that loophole, hunh?
You quoted it, it didn't say bisexual male, it said male.
2007-03-06 09:19:31 · answer #6 · answered by Dino 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋