I have asked this question of many a die hard fundamentalist, and I find it amazing that the same people who claim the bible is to be taken literally, come up with some really crazy answers when confronted with this question. Why are there two very different stories about the death of Judas ( one in Mathew, one in Acts ). And please spare me the make believe!!! As you think the bible is to be taken literally, no answer you come up with means squat if you can't back it up with the bible.
2007-03-06 08:12:44 · 12 answers · asked by porhtronranie2 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
OK, Since so few looked it up before answering, I'll explain. Version one, Judas threw the silver shekels at the Pharisees, and went to a field where he hung himself.
Version two, Judas used the silver shekels to buy a field where he fell from a cliff and was torn asunder on the rocks below. Sorry, very little chance that this could be the same incident viewed from different perspectives.
2007-03-06 08:27:12 · update #1
Oh, and God made it that way is about as conclusive as "cuz my mommy said...
2007-03-06 08:28:22 · update #2
I don't take the Bible literally, but this one is explainable. The problem is the meaning of the word 'hanged'. We assume it means from a tree. In first century Rome the usual method of suicide was to throw one's sword hilt first into the ground and then throw one's self onto one's sword. This was refered to as hanging since you were left hanging on your sword. This is why Judas burst open in the middle and had his bowels gush out.
2007-03-06 08:21:58 · answer #1 · answered by rhoenes 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
There is, actually, a clever way that fundies have been answering this question...
One description says Judas hung himself. Another says he fell and "burst asunder", meaning that he basically exploded when he hit the ground...
The clever explanation is that the first description is correct - and that the second description was written from the point of view of a person who came along a few days after Judas had hung himself (remember, in the Passion movie, he used a rope that was around the neck of a dead and decaying donkey), when the rope had broke, dropping Judas' rotting corpse on the ground and allowing it to explode from putrifaction...
This is actually a clever response. It doesnt explain why the second description neglects to describe a broken rope around Judas' neck, and actually is written as if it were witnessed. I guess 2000 years ago, it wasnt uncommon for someone to trip over their own two feet and explode!!
Dont worry - Im not buying the explanation - just sharing it with you. I too think it reeks of back-peddling-make-beleive myself...
2007-03-06 16:25:16 · answer #2 · answered by ? 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are countless contradictions. That is just one of them. How about Jesus' genealogy. Mathew traces Jesus father, Joseph's decent to King David by 28 generations while Luke has him pegged at 41 generations with very little overlap in names (2). Further, if Joseph ISN'T the bio dad how is his lineage even relevant. Also if you look at the 2 gospels that discuss Chris's birth, they are two entirely different stories. One has them living in Nazareth all along and the other has them there for a census. the census makes no sense. Even if one had taken place, why would you travel to the town of a distant ancestor (1000 years) to get counted. If taken literally, it holds no water as the conflicts are irreconcilable,
2007-03-06 16:27:20 · answer #3 · answered by Rico E Suave 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question. Leads to the whole "eyewitness" thing they claim all the Gospels are. Yet, more than 1/2 of all of them put together couldn't be eyewitness accounts.
To add to your question here - each Gospel has Jesus' last words as different. "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me" and "It is Finished" are just 2 of those, but each death seems to be different. Another point on it - it expressly states that ALL of the apostles ran away except John and the 2 Mary's..... how could they possibly know his last words if they weren't even there?
Take it literally? IMPOSSIBLE
2007-03-06 16:34:07 · answer #4 · answered by Kithy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
These are two different views on the same incident. They both happened, it is just missing a piece of the puzzle to tie them together. That information isn't provided as it is insignificant to ones salvation.
2007-03-06 16:19:37 · answer #5 · answered by michael m 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have the same problem speaking to theists. In one case they say the bible is metaphorical, on the other hand sometimes its literal.
It can't be both otherwise you can justify every book or story to be the book of god.
2007-03-06 16:19:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If two people witness an accident, their report may not be identical. There are many examples like this all over the bible. So what exactly are you whining about?
2007-03-06 16:18:32 · answer #7 · answered by gnostic 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Judas died and his bowels burst in the field. Same not different. Get over it.
2007-03-06 16:16:44 · answer #8 · answered by Tribble Macher 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
one who tells someone hey I moved and bought a car for My wife to goto work in....same story told to another individual is, hey I moved last month and instead of using My car to get Me and My wife around and to and from work, I bought her one as well.....hope its abit more understanding now to ya if not..ya gonna have to take it to prayer, God bless
2007-03-06 16:21:02 · answer #9 · answered by Pastor Biker 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You won't find too many similar answers for this one. It's all how everyone will perceive it, right?
2007-03-06 16:16:29 · answer #10 · answered by Cold Fart 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋