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I find many verses in the Quran that give men more rights and powers over women. One of those verses is [24:6]:

"And for those who launch a charge against their wives, and have (in support) no evidence but their own, their solitary evidence is acceptable if they bear witness four times (with an oath) by Allah that they are solemnly telling the Truth"

This means that a man can easily accuse his wife of adultery and therefore can divorce her with no rights for her, while a woman can not accuse her husband for adultery unless she has FOUR witnesses on him. If she fails to provide FOUR witnesses, the Quran orders that she should be LASHED for tainting his name.

Is there any reason for the difference between husband's right (to accuse his wife with no witnesses) and wife's right (she can not acuse her husband unless she has FOUR witnesses)?

2007-03-06 01:40:56 · 8 answers · asked by Bionimetiket 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

They think women are beneath men. WRONG!!!

2007-03-06 01:45:01 · answer #1 · answered by Barbra 6 · 0 1

You're taking the verse out of context read on

And for those who launch a charge against their spouses, and have (in support) no evidence but their own,- their solitary evidence (can be received) if they bear witness four times (with an oath) by Allah that they are solemnly telling the truth;

And the fifth (oath) (should be) that they solemnly invoke the curse of Allah on themselves if they tell a lie.

But it would avert the punishment from the wife, if she bears witness four times (with an oath) By Allah, that (her husband) is telling a lie;

And the fifth (oath) should be that she solemnly invokes the wrath of Allah on herself if (her accuser) is telling the truth.

(Quran 24: 6-9)

The same applies for a woman, and no where does it say "lash a woman who taints her husbands name".

2007-03-06 09:43:48 · answer #2 · answered by By Any Means Necessary 5 · 2 0

Whenever you just take single passages out of any holy book and try to prove a point with them, it is unsound. This verse must be taken in context with the rest of the sura.

Islam does not preach inequality between men and women. It prescribes roles for each sex. Try reading sura Nisa'a and then try to tell me that women are unequal.

2007-03-06 09:44:24 · answer #3 · answered by Average Joe 3 · 1 0

All islam men don't treat there significants others poorly/differently...some of them are even better supporters than American men....it is just what you can tolerate. You know the bible says you should treat your wife as you would want to be treated...but how many American men fail to "owe up" and take charge and be the man...Don't judge men by color or race......religion.

2007-03-06 10:29:39 · answer #4 · answered by AlphaFeGreatWhite 3 · 1 0

Because it was written by a man. Back then women were considered property like a goat or a camel.

2007-03-06 09:43:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

That religion is outdated for this day and age, and it needs reform. They treat their women and children like second class citizens and thats not how the world should be nowadays.

2007-03-06 09:46:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Insanity, gullibility, greed, and stupidity are going to be the death of us all:(

2007-03-06 09:44:37 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Man made religions do that.

2007-03-06 09:43:03 · answer #8 · answered by Tribble Macher 6 · 0 2

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