Levitical marriage required where my brother leaves his widow without male children, ie., POLYGYNY!
2007-03-05 11:00:08 · 5 answers · asked by theagitator@sbcglobal.net 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
suppose i already have a wife
2007-03-05 11:10:25 · update #1
Levitical law is OT law, and we were excused from that by Jesus.
Oh, wait, the "Ten Commandments" are OT law too!
Woohoo!
2007-03-05 11:04:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is sorta between yes and no.
In biblical times, if a man died without children (of any sex), his widow married his brother. This marriage was called Yibum. Their first child together was considered the dead man's son and heir. That way, the dead brother's memory and estate would be carried on, and his widow would be supported.
There was also an escape clause if the couple did not want to marry, called Chalitza. The widow would take off her brother-in-law's shoe, and spit at his feet. Then she'd be free to marry whoever she wanted.
In ancient times, refusing to do Yibum was considered cruel to both the dead man and the widow. As sensibilities changed, more and more people started doing Chalitza. Today, almost all Jews do Chalitza instead of Yibum.
2007-03-05 11:21:40 · answer #2 · answered by Melanie Mue 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
actually that is not polygyny, because your brother has to die with no male heirs before you can marry his wife. I believe if your brother dies it is still legal to marry his wife to this day.
2007-03-05 11:06:44 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A lot of the stuff written in Leviticus was cancelled out, if you like, by the birth of our Lord Jesus Christ
2007-03-05 11:03:14 · answer #4 · answered by Cookie_Monster_UK 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not by serious Jews which is interesting because G-d doesn't change, we do & hope that he will accept it by grace.
2007-03-05 11:03:39 · answer #5 · answered by know it all 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋