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I'm an athiest and I'm not trying to disprove or prove anything I just got a question......please no wise cracks just honest answers


Ok so....God made Jesus in order for Jesus to sacrifice himself so people can start goin to heaven? Something bout original sin??? Right??
So does that mean, technically, that Jews all go to hell or at least everyone before Jesus' time went to hell?

Yeah that's the question. Hope I didn't offend anyone or screw up the question. I just wanted to know.

2007-03-05 10:14:20 · 17 answers · asked by Tania La Güera 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

ok you're right I stand corrected....does everyone who is NOT a christian go to hell?

if there were standards to getting into heaven already, why did god send Jesus??

2007-03-05 10:22:33 · update #1

17 answers

Hi Tania,

here are my answers to your question.

1) You ask:
God made Jesus in order for Jesus to sacrifice himself so people can start goin to heaven?

answer: Its a sacrifies to cleans our sins,

Hebrew 10:12 12 But this man(Jesus Christ), after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;

After mans death, he will not go instantly/immediately to heaven nor hell nor judgement. No man has ever been to heaven right now.

===================

2) You ask:
Something bout original sin??? Right??

answer: there is no such thing as original sin in the bible, its just invented by catholics, so they can force their teachings regarding infant baptism.

===================

3) You ask:
So does that mean, technically, that Jews all go to hell or at least everyone before Jesus' time went to hell?

answer: No, because they have different laws, jews follows the law of Moses, people outside israel has laws inflanted by God in their heart as their conscience, and they will be judge in accordance to that law. God will not ask from us on something that we don't know, He is a God of justice.

===================

4: You said:
Yeah that's the question. Hope I didn't offend anyone or screw up the question. I just wanted to know.

My remarks: your questions are valid, and should be addressed with no offend.

===================

5)You additional question: 3 minutes ago
ok you're right I stand corrected....does everyone who is NOT a christian go to hell?

answer: No, There are also non christians who are good who were not christians including their perished ancestors who are not christians not because they don't want to be christians, but because they don't have the chance of hearing the Bible nor having the chance to have a Bible copy, nor somebody were able to preach them.

===================

6) You ask:
if there were standards to getting into heaven already, why did god send Jesus??

my answer:
your question is an intelligent question, however your question requires a lot of time to fully answers that will satisfy you. With this I would like to incourage you to ask/contact directly Bro Eli at http://www.truthcaster.com . He has lots of knowledge regarding this matter, and be able to give sensible answers to any religious quations you have in mind.


Christian regards,
Jocel_gomez@yahoo.com

2007-03-05 11:16:59 · answer #1 · answered by jocel_gomez 2 · 0 1

There was no heavenly hope before Jesus came to earth.
He then talked to his disciples about the heavenly hope.

Prior to that the Jews hoped in a restored earth as the Scriptures also point to....many, many times.

As far as the teaching of hellfire, I as a Christian understand that the "hell" the Bible speaks about is much different than the one being espoused from the pulpits of Christendom.

God did not create Jesus just to sacrifice himself. There were probably thousands, if not millions of years of association between the Father and the Son before the Father used the Masterworker to bring everything else into being. See Proverbs 8:22-31 and Colossians 1:15:18

In regards to: Hell

Definition: The word “hell” is found in many Bible translations. In the same verses other translations read “the grave,” “the world of the dead,” and so forth. Other Bibles simply transliterate the original-language words that are sometimes rendered “hell”; that is, they express them with the letters of our alphabet but leave the words untranslated. What are those words? The Hebrew she’ohl′ and its Greek equivalent hai′des, which refer, not to an individual burial place, but to the common grave of dead mankind; also the Greek ge′en·na, which is used as a symbol of eternal destruction. However, both in Christendom and in many non-Christian religions it is taught that hell is a place inhabited by demons and where the wicked, after death, are punished (and some believe that this is with torment).

What is the origin of the teaching of hellfire?

In ancient Babylonian and Assyrian beliefs the “nether world . . . is pictured as a place full of horrors, and is presided over by gods and demons of great strength and fierceness.” (The Religion of Babylonia and Assyria, Boston, 1898, Morris Jastrow, Jr., p. 581) Early evidence of the fiery aspect of Christendom’s hell is found in the religion of ancient Egypt. (The Book of the Dead, New Hyde Park, N.Y., 1960, with introduction by E. A. Wallis Budge, pp. 144, 149, 151, 153, 161) Buddhism, which dates back to the 6th century B.C.E., in time came to feature both hot and cold hells. (The Encyclopedia Americana, 1977, Vol. 14, p. 68) Depictions of hell portrayed in Catholic churches in Italy have been traced to Etruscan roots.—La civiltà etrusca (Milan, 1979), Werner Keller, p. 389.

But the real roots of this God-dishonoring doctrine go much deeper. The fiendish concepts associated with a hell of torment slander God and originate with the chief slanderer of God (the Devil, which name means “Slanderer”), the one whom Jesus Christ called “the father of the lie.”—John 8:44.

2007-03-05 18:48:14 · answer #2 · answered by Livin In Myrtle Beach SC 3 · 0 0

No, the old covenant applied to people before Jesus came to us. They were judged based on the law God gave to Moses.

God planned to send Jesus ever since Adam and Eve fell, he even told them (in not very plain language) he would. Why did he wait thousands of years? I don't think anyone can answer that with human understanding. There were obvious advantages to having it take place during roman times, a good chunk of the world was operating under the same system, and they made getting around a lot easier.

2007-03-05 18:19:19 · answer #3 · answered by Rossonero NorCal SFECU 7 · 1 0

First of all, Jesus was God's first creation (Colossians 1:15, 16) although that probably wasn't his name at that time. He was created as a spirit being and lived with God in heaven. When Satan lied to Eve and Adam disobeyed God's only law for them, Adam became sinful and there was no possiblility that he could live beyond 1 day (With God a day = 1,000 years). Also, he became genetically flawed so that he could only pass sin and death to his children as well. Lovingly, God provided a sacrifice which would be equal to what Adam had lost. The second Adam (or the second perfect man) would replace Adam as ancestor for any human born after Adam who wanted to do God's will and would accept this provision. So, God's son (his first creation whom we know as Jesus) willingly came to earth as that perfect man and remained perfect and died without ever having committed a sin. In this way, he did not die for anything he did and his sacrifice could be applied to all of us. It does not save us from a firey burning place of torment because that is just a misinterpretation of scripture. It does allow us to be free of the death and the tendancy toward sinfulness which we inherited from Adam--but, we must accept this provision and live accordingly. Otherwise, we will ultimately die and not be resurrected.

2007-03-05 19:32:37 · answer #4 · answered by Sparkle1 6 · 0 0

tough one to answer,you would need to see this in the light of gods plan of salvation for humanity.this website will help you if you wanted to take the time to read it,you don't have to agree with it but it will help answer your question

salvationhistory.com-go to the free study section and read at your own pace.

as a quick answer- jesus rose on the third day-as we believe,before he ascended into heaven he descended to the netherworld(which adds to the concept of purgatory). there he preached and spread the word to those who had been dead in essence who also needed salvation from the savior,those who accepted it was saved.

it is commonly understood that a person who had no knowledge of god or didn't have a chance to hear the gospel would be saved as they didn't reject/sin against god because they had no idea of him. as for jews or those who are not christian only god knows the outcome on this as there are a vast amount of things to be considered,either way no one knows what will happen until the last judgment and so no one has the right or authority to declare what warrants going to heaven and hell for each individual.

2007-03-05 18:41:41 · answer #5 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 0 0

At the time before Jesus the law stated that you had to offer sacrifices along with abiding by God's given law, you'll find that in Leviticus and Deuteronomy(that's in the Bible) the purpose for Jesus coming to earth and dying for our sins, including yours, is to show that the law was not good enough for mankind. Mankind could not keep the law, and God already planned for a sufficient sacrifice for all. Salvation is a gift free for all who believe and ask repentance and for Jesus to come into their hearts and save their soul. In this time I find it really hard for a person to believe that all this happened just by accident. I hope you will read the Bible and find the grace and mercy that only Jesus Christ can offer. God Bless, I will pray for you.

2007-03-05 18:35:47 · answer #6 · answered by jbailey0103 1 · 0 0

Actually, Jesus is part of God, not a creation of God. But his body was created, so your statement might be partially correct.

As for people who lived before the Messiah came, the apostle Paul seems to argue that the sacrifice of Jesus was applied retroactively to all people who had faith in the God of Abraham.

2007-03-05 18:41:56 · answer #7 · answered by Randy G 7 · 0 0

whoa, you've said just about EVERYTHING wrong there.

1) Jesus was NOT created. He is/was a part of God, as He comes from the same essense (parakletos) and He is in the Father and the Father in Him.

2) Jesus came to redeem the souls of all who accept Him as Lord and Savior, and to allow us to develop personal relationships with God. Heaven's a bonus.

3) when people refer to the original sin, they refer to Adam and eve. Because Adam and Eve disobeyed God, they lost their closeness to Him. When Jesus died, he regained man's rights to fellowship with God and marked the transendance of God's covenant with Israel alone (as His chosen people) to all of mankind (who accept Him).

4) people before Jesus went to Paradise (called Abraham's bossom in Hebrew) if they lived "holy" lives, and went to Hell if they didn't. When Jesus died, He released those in Hell (likely those who went there because of ignorance) so they could have the opportunity to become Holy, as everyone now has the chance. There's even mention of people arising from their graves.

hope that helps!

2007-03-05 18:26:44 · answer #8 · answered by Hey, Ray 6 · 0 0

Because the law, was impossible to adhere to. We needed a savior. Godly Jews and others went to a place called Paradise until Jesus came. His death and resurrection allowed them all to enter heaven .

2007-03-05 18:28:41 · answer #9 · answered by Eartha Q 6 · 0 0

Everyone before Jesus's time were supposed to follow the Old Testament law, particularly the Israelites. If they followed the law, did their animal sacrifices, they were supposed to be saved.

2007-03-05 18:19:28 · answer #10 · answered by Jay 6 · 0 0

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