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It would appear that every time a question comes up regarding the possibility of a relationship between the two,a number of christians answer that it could not have happened because there is no proof.
They are quite convinced of the existence of god yet there is no proof of that either.
Anybody else think that double standards apply here?

2007-03-05 07:05:44 · 29 answers · asked by rosbif 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

29 answers

Double standards for christianity? No, never, couldn't happen, ever.

2007-03-05 07:08:52 · answer #1 · answered by Sun: supporting gay rights 7 · 5 6

Jesus was not married to Mary Magdalene or anyone else for that matter. Jesus did not have a sexual relationship outside of marriage because that would be sin and he is sinless. Therefore he never had any children.

• Though Jewish men of Jesus’ day were usually married, there were many exceptions. For example:
– The Essenes of the Dead Sea community at Qumran remained single.
– The apostle Paul was single (1 Corinthians 7:7).
– In both Judaism and Christianity, singleness and celibacy were esteemed as a means to complete devotion to the Lord (1 Corinthians 7:32 – 33).
– While most rabbis were married, Jesus more closely fulfilled the role of a prophet. Prophets often remained single to be wholly devoted to the Lord.
– John the Baptist, the prophet and forerunner of the Messiah, was unmarried.
• All of the evidence indicates Jesus was single.
– From the cross, Jesus commends his mother to John’s care, but does not mention a wife.
– There is no hint of any sexual or marital relationship between Jesus and the women who supported him.
• There is not a shred of early or reliable historical evidence that Jesus was married.

2007-03-05 07:27:26 · answer #2 · answered by cnm 4 · 1 1

Actually one would answer that the Bible itself is proof.

The only reason that you know that either Jesus or Mary Magdalene exists is because the Bible says so. The same book that says that they existed says nothing about their having a marital relationship.

If you don't believe in the Bible in the first place, then how do you believe that these people even existed? And how can imaginary people get married? And would it matter if two fictional people did?

See the problem, here?

===edit==

In other words, if you assume that the Bible is correct about some things, but wrong about others, then how can you tell which is which?

2007-03-05 07:12:39 · answer #3 · answered by Randy G 7 · 3 1

diverse people and diverse religions have diverse suggestions relating to the Marys. It relies upon upon who you ask. some say Mary Magdalene wasn't a prostitute in any respect, that Peter villified her out of jealosy. additionally, a female of her age that replaced into not married replaced into additionally labled a whore. some had to because of fact an single female had no status or potential to feed or safeguard herself. So in simple terms throwing it accessible.

2016-10-17 08:17:06 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

No...Because we have God in our hearts and that is enough proof for us....especially since we have a personal relationship.

Jesus and Mary Magdalene....for me the biggest proof that Jesus wasn't married is that He traveled with 12 men and never once is there any record of Mary saying hey why are you going off with those men again. Why aren't you spending time with me. 12 men around....one of them would have said something about that if it had happened.

2007-03-05 07:16:02 · answer #5 · answered by Jan P 6 · 1 1

I think the double standard is that this question is even asked.

The basis of all our understanding of Jesus, Mary, Joseph, Mary Magdalene etc. is the Bible.

So people like you (who don't believe the Bilbe) apparently, believe the part of the Bible that says these people existed, but add your own spin on it and ask for proof that it's not true.

Ridiculous.

2007-03-05 07:14:42 · answer #6 · answered by Salami and Orange Juice 5 · 2 2

But - there is proof - see "Josephius" - an historian, that there was a Jesus that lived and was put to death. If Jesus DID NOT rise from the dead, why did not the Hebrew authorities produce his body???

Wasn't thier purpose in putting him to death in the first place was that His followers were becoming too many and they felt threatened of losing thier positions??

Seems a very simple way to disprove that He was who he claimed to be - but there is no record of them ever producing the body.

I guess you think all those people that were put to death because they preached the Gospel of Jesus gave up thier lives and suffered persecution to what they knew was a lie???

I don't think so.

2007-03-05 07:13:28 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

I never seen a Million dollars in cash but I know they exist, I never seen the wind but I can feel it went it blows. Jesus is the same, he is there alive and in his throne, big enough to hold the universe in the palm of his hand and small enough to live in my heart, mind, and in my soul.
Want proof...look at all of his creation around you, look at the billions whom life's have changed because of the love that he gives.
The only one with double standard here is the devil and his followers who try and mix truth with lies.

2007-03-05 07:18:22 · answer #8 · answered by Commander 6 · 1 2

I think it's simply clinging to sheer faith with disbelief in anything but their concepts of how they think things should be. When you run out of the ability to logically process something it's far easier to fall back on faith. As long as people are more concerned with altruism in their "faith" than using their religion to tell other people how to act and live, I don't care what they believe, but if this whole concept of Jesus being married does come to proof... then it's going to be a LOT harder for many to stick their heads in the sand and get away with it.

Edit/addition: What's more is how many people cling to doctrine that was fabricated by the Catholic Church hundreds of years ago to keep people "stupid" and think it's law... oh my.

_()_

2007-03-05 07:10:21 · answer #9 · answered by vinslave 7 · 1 3

Double standards regularly apply in religion. they don't have to, and when they do they can be fair (for example, we should hold religious leaders to a higher standard than everyone else.)

A Christian who only believes in the Bible could say it's not in the Bible and therefore they don't believe it, but Christians who take that approach tend to believe OTHER things that aren't in the Bible (other people's gods are demons, gay marriage should be outlawed in secular society, the abrahamic laws apply to people outside that culture, their religion should be spread to the unwilling by force if need be, etc) so that's hugely unfair.

2007-03-05 07:12:34 · answer #10 · answered by LabGrrl 7 · 1 4

Yes. If that find had agreed with their faerie tale book, they would have the guy up for a Nobel Prize and then wonder why I was taking the same skeptical line I am now.

2007-03-05 07:14:37 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

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