I think their symptoms are the same, not all of the symtoms are there, but they both show signs.
2007-03-05 04:25:47 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Health ➔ Mental Health
Yeah, it can be genetic.
I know an entire bi-polar family.
all 5 kids, and both parents!!!!!!!!!!! jeesh.
2007-03-05 04:28:14 · answer #1 · answered by danksprite420 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Absolutely. Multiple family members can have it and one person's episode may often trigger another person into developing symptoms. There is a very strong genetic component to true Bipolar Disorder, though there are other pathways for developing the symptoms and it is often diagnosed incorrectly in people with traumatic backgrounds.
2007-03-05 12:32:04 · answer #2 · answered by Opester 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes it can be genetic, but not necessarily so. Just because one person has it doesn't necessarily mean another person in the family will get it.
2007-03-05 12:46:31 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It definitely can run in families, although it can be caused a person's environment as well.
2007-03-05 12:36:11 · answer #4 · answered by alc051001 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I think this Bi-polar crap is all just an excuse for people to act like *******
2007-03-05 12:27:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
yes, it does run in families. I have it, my daughter has it, and I'm pretty sure some of my brothers have it.
2007-03-05 12:30:30 · answer #6 · answered by bill blasphemy 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is believed to be genetic.
2007-03-05 12:35:30 · answer #7 · answered by slw_402000 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
go to the link below
http://www.moodswing.org/treat/gene1.htm
or
http://www.coulditbebipolar.com/mini_c/CouldItBeBipolar/mdq/takeMood.asp
2007-03-05 12:28:04 · answer #8 · answered by Patti T 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes they can, check out webmd.com
2007-03-05 12:28:45 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋