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If you say YES, then WHY does the Bible say this:

John 1:18

King James Version

"NO MAN HATH SEEN GOD AT ANY TIME, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."

New International Version

"NO ONE HAS EVER SEEN GOD, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known.

2007-03-04 14:38:02 · 12 answers · asked by Mutual Help 4 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

DON'T FORGET TO READ THE

NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION.

2007-03-04 14:46:58 · update #1

12 answers

No man....they both reiterate the same thing...angels are not men

You proved my point about "versions" the KJV is the most accurate translation to the greek text. The dproblem with versions like this is that they are not translations but paraphrases...its not hard for a christian to debunk this bull, but the problem is things like this confuse people lie you and you miss the blessing

2007-03-04 14:41:37 · answer #1 · answered by Robert K 5 · 1 0

The Bible says "No man" has ever seen God - angels are not men. But really that is not what is being said. There were visual perceptions of God given to men in the Old Testament record. The idea being conveyed here is that no man has ever seen God with full comprehension. Indeed, only God can fully see God with full comprehension. If your question is sincere, receive the explanation; but if you are seeking to stand guard over the words of God, may He stand guard over the words of your mouth.

2007-03-04 14:47:45 · answer #2 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 1 1

Yes, they have. An angel is not the same as a man.
Satan as we know is a fallen angel. There is a similar passage in Job 2. We know Satan is talking to God. Is he looking at God's face?? Beats me.Satan does converse with God.

Here's a passage from Job 1:6-7
One day the angels [a] came to present themselves before the LORD, and Satan [b] also came with them. The LORD said to Satan, "Where have you come from?"
Satan answered the LORD, "From roaming through the earth and going back and forth in it".

2007-03-04 14:55:17 · answer #3 · answered by georgiagolfer72 3 · 1 0

angels aren't men and aren't referred to as "someones" (and therefore would not be considered "no ones" either) They are created beings.

"For I tell you that their angels in heaven always see the face of my Father in heaven." Matthew 18:10

Oh, I'm so sorry, I forgot to tell you which version of the Bible I used:
NIV
would you like to read it in KJV?
" for I say unto you, That in heaven their angels do always behold the face of my Father which is in heaven." Matthew 18:10

2007-03-04 14:47:50 · answer #4 · answered by Terri 6 · 1 0

How can this not be, when lucifer was the anointed cherub, and he had acess to the holy mount of God? Angels are gods messengers, they are above men, but beneath the Lord and the one who created them. They have seen God, and they serve him and do his will. I believe thats why the ones who fell with satan cannot repent, they knew of God, and yet they believed the created rather than the creator.

2007-03-04 14:51:52 · answer #5 · answered by EyeKneadPoints 3 · 0 0

Jesus seemed to indicate that little children have angels assigned to them, for He said their angels always behold the face of God (see Matthew 18:10

2007-03-04 14:54:55 · answer #6 · answered by bonsai bobby 7 · 1 0

the only Angel I actual have seen is my son's sister , she is in simple terms 2 and he or she is almost slightly angel. nicely it extremely is till she gets disappointed and factors the finger of doom at you and then her complete expression variations.

2016-10-17 07:13:47 · answer #7 · answered by juart 4 · 0 0

Angels are their own created beings.
Man and angels are not the same thing.

2007-03-04 14:43:01 · answer #8 · answered by Lisa the Pooh 7 · 1 0

Christopher hasnt seen God yet..

2007-03-04 14:49:41 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

well, an angel is not really a man now is it?

2007-03-04 14:41:46 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

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