Jews lost their lands from the Roman Empire (2,000 years ago).
Mexicans lost the Southwest from America (150 years ago).
The USA supports the "Right of Return" for Jews, even after 2,000 years.
The USA also gives Israel over $3 billion of annual financial support.
IF LOGIC PREVAILS, then that means Mexicans, too, have the "Right of Return" to the Southwest.
If Mexicans don't have that right,
then doesn't that mean Jews must also be called "illegals" in Israel?
If 2,000 years (for Jews) is the "statute of limitations",
then 150 years (Mexicans) ago is within that statute for a logical application of morality, right?
2007-03-04
13:35:15
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6 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Immigration