Only the Bible makes this claim.
Why are there are no reports from contemporary historians, from Roman accounts, or from independent observations?
Is this a subhoax, as it were, in the main hoax of Jesus' execution and resurrection?
2007-03-04 04:04:52 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
C'MON CHURCH PEOPLE, HELP ME OUT ON THIS ONE.
2007-03-04 04:54:10 · update #1
There are reports of Jesus appearing to about 500 people. Why would others leave their graves? Why would the Romans themselves report this. You have to research this better before you make baseless claims.
2007-03-04 04:10:06 · answer #1 · answered by great gig in the sky 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
I think it is for many reasons. Censorship through many Kings and leaders is one reason. Some people has owned ancient manuscripts and not even known it. I think that I read a lady who had some dead sea scrolls started to burn them for heat and it was her son who noticed this and stopped it. That's just an example. There could be many reasons why ancient text did not make it to the year 2007. Have you ever read the writings of Josephus? may have mis-spelled Josephus.......
2007-03-04 04:15:37 · answer #2 · answered by Wayne 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
50 Then Jesus shouted out again, and he released his spirit. 51 At that moment the curtain in the sanctuary of the Temple was torn in two, from top to bottom. The earth shook, rocks split apart, 52 and tombs opened. The bodies of many godly men and women who had died were raised from the dead. 53 They left the cemetery after Jesus’ resurrection, went into the holy city of Jerusalem, and appeared to many people.
2007-03-04 04:23:37 · answer #3 · answered by David M 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Your expecting the Romans to say they saw the dead walking .. uhhuh.. that is like saying they saw something they didn't believe in happen.
People nowadays dont' say half what they saw because someone will try to debunk them or make fun of them. You think people have changed in 2000 years.. ?? NOT!
I assume you are reading Matthew 28:51-54
2007-03-04 04:10:41 · answer #4 · answered by Tapestry6 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Probably for the same reason that there are no reports of him actually doing other miracles. There are historical reports of his execution, but the bible is about faith, not historical fact.
2007-03-04 04:09:21 · answer #5 · answered by scrabblemaven 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
well...
i think what they really mean, is that the gates of heaven were opened to all those who had died before Jesus.
i remember my religion teacher saying something about it.
2007-03-04 04:13:18 · answer #6 · answered by M T 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋