John 16:12 is widely accepted as referring to the Holy Spirit.
How can this be when you consider the following?
1 By using the words (that one) to describe the subject, Jesus is most lightly referring to a single individual.
2 Jesus calls the subject the spirit of the truth and not the Holy Spirit, (not the same thing),
3 The Holy Spirit has no mind of its own, so it dose not have the option of speaking of its own impulse.
4 It is not ignorant, needing to be told any thing.
5 the subject declares to the disciples the things coming, so he must be separate from the little flock.
If you agree with me and you would like to know my opinion on this, think about what Jesus continues to says at John 16:14. and compare it to Lev 16:7
2007-03-04 03:26:35 · 4 answers · asked by trefrog56 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
email someone who knows all about JW's
waynesurpaz@yahoo.com
2007-03-04 03:31:01 · answer #1 · answered by Angell 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Your premise, that the Spirit of truth is not the conforter and the Holy Spirit is not borne out by the preceding verses. It is the Holy Spirit that Jesus is talking about, he does not change topic.
2007-03-04 03:33:47 · answer #2 · answered by great gig in the sky 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
and the Lord said let there be bum
2007-03-04 03:28:50 · answer #3 · answered by ihate c 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
___ I´ll read you recommend.
2007-03-04 03:29:53 · answer #4 · answered by MUTANT 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋