Hebrews chapter 11 holds up several people for Christians to emulated, and the list is primarily comprised of people in polygamous relationships, specifically Abraham, Sara, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Moses, and David. All the Old Testament A-listers. The other names in the chapters we don't know enough about to know what their marital arrangements were, but this group I named are clearly portrayed as polygamists. And Rahab was a ho. And the writer holds them up to Christians as examples. Why, unless polygamy is not the bad thing we are told? Please don't tell me how these households, especially David's, were problematic because of polygamy. I'm not asking if polygamy is a workable lifestyle. I'm asking how can the Bible hold people up as examples to Christians when they have such a glaring "fault", unless it is not a fault at all?
2007-03-04
03:05:54
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6 answers
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asked by
El Charangista
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Preacher, exactly where did Jesus teach a man should have one wife? And doesn't Paul in 1 Timothy 3:2, in saying that a bishop should be the husband of one wife, imply that some of the men there had more that one? Surely if he meant merely married he would say so.
2007-03-04
06:11:55 ·
update #1
Polygamy did not start among those who were true worshipers of God. The first record of polygamy is with Lamech, a descendant of unfaithful Cain. (Gen. 4:19) But God’s servant Noah had only one wife, as did each of his three sons. (Gen. 7:13; 1 Pet. 3:20) God’s friend Abraham had one wife, Sarah. But Sarah, long barren, knowing that a “seed” had been promised to Abraham, induced him to have relations with her Egyptian slave girl Hagar, who thereby became a concubine to Abraham. (Gen. 16:1-4) Abraham’s son Isaac, born later to Sarah through a miracle, and who was the promised “seed,” had only one wife. (Gen. 21:2, 12; 24:67) Isaac’s son Jacob, however, had two wives, due to trickery on the part of his father-in-law Laban. Jacob also had concubines.—Gen. 29:21-29; 30:1-13.
So when the Law came in, it did not bring in polygamy or concubinage, nor did it encourage these practices. In fact, polygamy was evidently not practiced by the majority in ancient Israel; primarily it was confined to the more prominent and wealthy, though not to these exclusively. (Judg. 8:30; 2 Chron. 11:21) For kings to have many wives was sort of a ‘status symbol’ among the nations.—2 Sam. 16:20-22.
The provisions of the Law were such as would actually discourage polygamy. Each time a man had intercourse with his wife he was unclean, in a religious sense, for a day. (Lev. 15:16, 17) Thus, relations with several wives would make it more frequently inconvenient for the Hebrew, for uncleanness prevented the man from engaging in a number of activities. (Lev. 7:20, 21; 1 Sam. 21:3-5; 2 Sam. 11:11) Also, the laws of inheritance required that the man give the double inheritance to his firstborn son, even if he was the son of the less-loved wife. (Deut. 21:15-17) In these respects, polygamy was undesirable.
So God, although regulating polygamy, did not see fit to abolish the custom among his people at that time, just as he did not abolish, yet regulated, slavery. It was not yet time for him to restore all things to his perfect standard. The writer of the Bible book of Hebrews quotes Jesus as saying, in effect, about the many animal sacrifices offered by the Jews: “Sacrifice and offering you [God] did not want, but you prepared a body for me.” (Heb. 10:5) The Law’s arrangement for animal sacrifices was a mere shadow, not the reality. Jesus Christ gave the truly satisfactory sacrifice to remove sins. The writer speaks about sacrifices and other features of the Law and says: “They were legal requirements pertaining to the flesh and were imposed until the appointed time to set things straight.”—Heb. 9:10.
Therefore, with Jesus Christ’s appearance on earth the time came to begin to set things straight. He made clear God’s standard of monogamy, and of Scriptural divorce only on grounds of adultery. (Matt. 19:9) When asked by the Pharisees why God did not enforce this standard upon Israel, Jesus replied: “Moses, out of regard for your hardheartedness, made the concession to you of divorcing your wives, but such has not been the case from the beginning.”—Matt. 19:7, 8.
2007-03-04 03:30:04
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answer #1
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answered by Mia 2
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Polygamy never benifited anybody. It causes many problems within the house. Half brothers and sisters can have sexual desires for one another, and it leads to jealousy and brokeness. Besides polygamy most likely will cause a man to feel proud, and better than the common man. When David took Bathsheba as his wife, and killed Uriah, there was great turmoil in the family for hundreds of years. Even after David repented his sons, wanted to kill him, for the kingship. Then following Davids reign came Solomon who had 700 wives and 200 concubines. We know that Solomon turned away from God, and ended up becoming a fool, serving idols that were man made. Although one may look at having more wives has having advantages due to a variety in sex life, the consequences are more costly then one wants to pay. People in the Old Testament did not have the holy spirit, so they were not convinced that it was wrong. However through Jesus we find, what lifestyle God is really pleased with.
2007-03-06 11:36:32
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answer #2
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answered by ۞ JønaŦhan ۞ 7
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Yes, polygamy is forbidden for Christians. The effect can be observed, as someone has already mentioned, in the monogamous nature of Western societies. As to the Old Testament, many denominations do not focus on it, though it is still read. It is the New Testament that we look to for guidance.
Oh yeah, one more thing: It is generally assumed that we (Christians) are to read the Bible with discretion. Moreover, only Jesus is considered the perfect and ideal role model for us all.
2007-03-04 11:52:47
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answer #3
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answered by tigertrot1986 3
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Yes. Christianity is Judaism, but a better way. Christianity has its roots in Judaism, but the law was fulfilled in Christ. Both Jesus and Paul taught that a man should have only one wife. This does not mean that we should condemn and dismiss the Old Testament Patriarchs and prophets, for they did what God told them to do or allowed them to do. Anyway, polygamy is outlawed in all Western societies and a man cannot claim religious exemption and keep several wives----and what man in his right mind would want to? One wife is enough for any man to contend with, much less several. The wisdom of God proves itself once again.
2007-03-04 11:16:11
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answer #4
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answered by Preacher 6
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They were examples in other things. For a time polygomy was used because males were killed in war, and died faster than females, and if polygomy did not occur, there would be an end to the family. (Some are a little exageratted though, but this was the general purpose.) Christians cannot have more than 1 wife.
2007-03-04 11:19:22
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answer #5
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answered by Tony C 4
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www.biblepolygamy.com
www.biblicalpolygamy.com
2014-02-01 21:36:50
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answer #6
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answered by Sign Of The Owl 3
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