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Don't ask why but the other day I had a question in regards to the habits we all (well most of us anyhow!) have. If urine is sterile, as it's said to be, then why is it so forced upon that everyone washes their hands after using the restroom?

2007-03-03 21:18:12 · 6 answers · asked by Shakiki 3 in Health Other - Health

I just did a google search and Wilkipedia disagrees with a few of you that posted answers and stated the following:

Urine is sterile the second it is expelled from a human. Therefore fresh urine can be used to clean wounds in emergencies, when no alternatives are available. Urine only becomes contaminated when it has been standing for a time.

2007-03-06 21:10:03 · update #1

6 answers

urine can be used as temporary protection against infections, but contact with urine or other bodily fluids, and genitals can spread disease or sickness. because people often come into contact with public items also touched by others, washing hands is encouraged as it reduces the risk of spreading diseases or sickness.

2007-03-03 21:29:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Urine carries waste from the body and is not sterile

2007-03-06 18:07:14 · answer #2 · answered by tuppenybitz 7 · 0 0

Urine is only "sterile" to the one who produced it. To everyone else it is toxic.

2007-03-04 05:21:38 · answer #3 · answered by 1sleepymama 7 · 1 1

actually it is sterile unless one has a tract infection.. the answer is simple.. its the YUCKK factor.. humans are funny about that..

2007-03-04 05:55:17 · answer #4 · answered by darchangel_3 5 · 0 0

I heard its full of germs where did you hear it was sterile.

2007-03-04 05:22:03 · answer #5 · answered by Death Girl Am 6 · 1 1

because you touch "OTHER" things, does'nt it make more sense to wash "BEFORE" going to the bathroom ?

2007-03-04 05:22:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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