From the New American Bible
2007-03-03 13:21:43 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Civic Participation
Addition from 22mins ago: 17 "You shall not let a sorceress live.p
2007-03-03 13:46:32 · update #1
I am so very sorry that you people can discredit my Source. You know, the one I am looking at right now, obviously, in your religious intelligence, you would be aware of the various descrepencies from Bible to Bible. Yes, I have read about three different Bibles. So 16 - ...price for virgins and 18 - ...lies with an animal.. . Thanks for citing your source though, appreciate it.
2007-03-04 12:22:42 · update #2
It's another fairy tale about witches - n - fortunetellers - n - gods-n-stuff and about how a good christian will chop of the head of such a one.
2007-03-03 14:43:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
Exodus 22:17 is about dowry prices... and the resulting financial damage and recompense after either seduction or rape of a virgin daughter.
...But your "addtional information" refers to verse 18 - not 17.
If you're needing information on, "Put to death any woman who practices magic." (GoodNewsBible Translation) It has to do with keeping the first commandment - no other gods, but our God. The great "I AM."
The practices of sorcery at that time came out of practices involved with the Egyptian gods and goddesses. God said - no, that there would be no other god for the people of Israel, but He alone.
Other references in Scripture:
Genesis 41:8; Leviticus 19:31; Leviticus 20:6,27; Deuteronomy 18:10-14; Isaiah 2:6; Isaiah 8:19 (See Matthew 22:29-32 and Luke 20:34-38 with that); Isaiah 47:13; 1st Samuel 15:23; Jeremiah 14:14-18; 1st Samuel 28:3-25; 2nd Kings 9:22; 2nd Kings 21:6; 2nd Kings 23:24; 2nd Chronicles 33:6; Ezekiel 13:6-7; Acts 13:6,8; and Acts 16:16.
The Greek word Pharmakeia is translated into English as "sorcery" in the New Testement... and it is where we get the words Pharmacy or pharmaceuticle. It litterally means, "enchantment by drugs." This is found in:
Hosea 4:12; Exodus 7:22; Isaiah 47:9,12; Galatians 5:20; Revelation 9:21 and Revelation 18:23.
I hope these references help give you perspective.
Peace. --De
2007-03-04 16:46:20 · answer #2 · answered by Depoetic 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Basically what they are saying is that if a man sleeps with a virgin, he has ruined her for marriage. In those times a girl was sold into marriage and the husband paid the father a good price to have her. General assumption was that she would work hard, keep the house clean and her husband fed, and have many children. If a man slept with the girl and took her virginity, but for some reason the father doesn't want him to have her as a wife (maybe the man is too poor, or too old, or of a different nationality, or has a trade the father does not think is worthy) he still has to pay for her even if he doesn't get her. That is because once she has lost her virginity she has lost her value and the father can't get top price for her. He will have to sell her as spoiled goods.
Aren't you glad things have changed? At least in this country they have.
2007-03-03 21:36:24 · answer #3 · answered by crzygal 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
If a man seduces a virgin who is not pledged to be married to him, he must pay the bride pice establised and he can have her for his wife. But if her father refuses to give her to him for a wife, he must still pay the bride price as he seduced a virgin. These were laws concerning immorality in the Israelite camp. These laws were given to Moses by God.
2007-03-03 21:32:39 · answer #4 · answered by conni 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It is about fornication and doweries
2007-03-03 21:37:21 · answer #5 · answered by ohbrother 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋