Why are french fries called french fries and not American fries or something?

Answer 1

Culinary origin of the term

The straightforward explanation of the term is that it means 'potatoes fried in the French manner': the verb 'to fry' can mean either sautéing or deep-fat frying, while French 'frire' unambiguously means deep frying. Thomas Jefferson, famous for serving French dishes, referred to fried potatoes in this way.[1]

It is sometimes suggested that the verb 'to french' originally meant to julienne-cut.[2] But this term refers specifically to trimming the meat off the shanks of chops[3] and is not attested until after 'French fried potatoes' had appeared.


1^ Fishwick, Marshall W (1998). The Savant as Gourmet. Journal of Popular Culture, 32:11:55.
2^ Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary, 10th ed.
3 ^ "to French: to prepare, as a chop, by partially cutting the meat from the shank and leaving bare the bone so as to fit it for convenient handling" (Oxford English Dictionary)

Answer 2

During the American revolution George Washington wanted his potato slices fried. After that it became an American icon

Answer 3

French-fried potatoes were probably invented in France or Belgium during the 18th century, and the name "French" was applied to them in English in the 19th century. However, there are various more-or-less plausible alternative theories.

Answer 4

"french" refers to the cut of the potato, long narrow rectangles, it does not refer to the country france

Answer 5

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Answer 6

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