English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

And he preached, saying: There cometh after me one mightier than I, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to stoop down and loose.

Most people consider that Jesus is referring to John, the Baptist. If Jesus considered John greater than Himself, then was John God? If He was not referring to John, then who is that person?

2007-03-03 03:46:05 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

You are all correct. It was John, the Baptist speaking. I posted this question because I have seen so many people simply respond without bothering to check the source. My apologies to all who know better.

2007-03-03 03:59:14 · update #1

9 answers

Verse 7 is John the Baptist speaking of Jesus coming. The reverse of your statement. Read these scriptures again.

Mark 1

1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; 2 As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee. 3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight. 4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. 5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins. 6 And John was clothed with camel's hair, and with a girdle of a skin about his loins; and he did eat locusts and wild honey; 7 And preached, saying, There cometh one mightier than I after me, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to stoop down and unloose. 8 I indeed have baptized you with water: but he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost. 9 And it came to pass in those days, that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized of John in Jordan.

2007-03-03 04:00:15 · answer #1 · answered by deacon 6 · 0 0

I believe you've got this backwards: in Mark 1:7, it's John, the Baptist referring to Jesus. Check out verses 6-8.

6 And John was clothed with camel's hair, and with a girdle of a skin about his loins; and he did eat locusts and wild honey;
7 And preached, saying, There cometh one mightier than I after me, the latchet of whose shoes I am not worthy to stoop down and unloose.
8 I indeed have baptized you with water: but he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost.

You can see that John preached, not Jesus. So Jesus was (and is) the mightier one, the Son of God and God Himself.

2007-03-03 03:52:02 · answer #2 · answered by ensign183 5 · 0 0

Jesus didn't say that, John the Baptist did. John was referring to Jesus. Read the preceding verses.

2007-03-03 03:50:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The person making that statement was John the Baptist, he was referingto Jesus Christ!!! They were cousins and John was 6 months older than Jesus!!

2007-03-03 03:56:27 · answer #4 · answered by michael m 5 · 0 0

The one who said this sentence was John the Baptist, and he was referring to Jesus.

2007-03-03 03:52:47 · answer #5 · answered by r083r70v1ch 4 · 0 0

You are confused. John was preaching, not Jesus. The Baptist stated that Jesus was mightier than he.

2007-03-03 03:49:30 · answer #6 · answered by SpiritRoaming 7 · 1 0

I believe that John is the preacher here -

not Jesus

so John is referring to Jesus - your question is incorrect

2007-03-03 03:49:53 · answer #7 · answered by tomkat1528 5 · 0 0

My information is that at Mark 14:sixty one-sixty 4 (my paraphrasing) Jesus became requested by technique of the manager priest if he became the CHRIST, the Son of God. Jesus admitted that he became. the manager priest stated why can we desire witnesses, he stated it himself. the manager priest stated as that BLASPHEMY. Jesus became accused of blasphemy because of saying to be THE SON OF GOD, THE CHRIST (MESSIAH) At John 8:fifty 8, the Jews were outraged because Jesus claimed to have existed before Abraham, the daddy of their u . s .. i'm one among Jehovah's Witnesses to respond to your question, I examine from the Douay-Rheims bible only an aspect note.

2016-12-05 04:44:11 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Ummm...you have that backward. John was speaking in reference to Jesus.

God bless,
Stanbo

2007-03-03 03:51:50 · answer #9 · answered by Stanbo 5 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers