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The Bible clearly states that human slavery is acceptible and slaves may be beaten as long as they are not killed, it also says that women should submit to their husbands like they submit to the Lord, but I don't know any Christian out there that believes that slavery is okay. So if we don't follow those parts of the Bible bcause of our society, then why do we foloow other parts, and how do we know which parts to follow?

2007-03-03 02:41:47 · 19 answers · asked by jorge n 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

For those who say the Bible doesn't say slavery is okay, read this: When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21)

2007-03-03 02:53:31 · update #1

Also the Bible says we should kill gay men: "If a man lies with a male as with a women, both of them shall be put to death for their abominable deed; they have forfeited their lives." (Leviticus 20:13)

2007-03-03 02:56:57 · update #2

19 answers

You been beating your slaves again?

2007-03-03 03:08:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well, to properly answer this question would take a few days of continuing conversation and a lot of research, so here's a quicky answer that I hope will be of some benefit to you.

many Christian denominations do indeed pick and choose what scripture they will follow and how they will do it, while many so-called Christian denominations (I won't name them because I'm not here to start a fight) are very visible and make it hard for the actual Christian to be understood for their beliefs.

Now, what do I mean by this? Well if you have a large group who claim to be Christian and they are very active and people hear about them a lot, yet they are not following the true teaching of the scripture, you have those who are following the scripture (as best we can with our limited understanding) having a difficult time being separated from the non-Christians in the general publics eye.

As for your question, you need to first separate Old Testament teaching from New Testament teaching. This in no way says that we forget the OT and only follow the NT, but that we realize that much of the OT is there to help us see how fallen we are and in need of a Savior.

Yes, there was slavery in the OT as well as the NT, but in the OT God allowed the Hebrew people to do many things He disagreed with so they could see the folly of their way. Notice that after the Hebrew people have slaves for many years, they become slaves themselves. Kind of a "You get what you give" scenario. NT slavery was explained in one of the other answers fairly well.

As for submition of a woman, this in no way says that a woman is a slave to the man. It means rather that the man is the one God is going to hold accountable when the fecal matter makes contact with the rotary augsilory. Woman was created as a "help meet", or more simply put, a helper. Not a slave, not a door mat, a helper. An adviser. A mate. But God placed man in the position of head, even as Christ is head of the church (Eph. 5:23), so onto the man falls the responsability of running the household, but not without the input of the woman.

As for really understanding what you are asking, you need to do some good research from some good biblical teachers. I would suggest listening to Christian radio like Moody broadcasting, or if you like the more modern style, Air One is good also.

Hope this helps a bit.

2007-03-03 11:21:48 · answer #2 · answered by glen w 3 · 0 0

The bible was speaking about the culture of that time, and slavery was a part of it. It wasn't condoning it, it was merely letting those people know that it wasn't okay to kill slaves. Also, a lot of slavery at that time was more of indentured servitude. People who couldn't feek their kids sold them into slavery to save them from starvation. A man who owed money to another and couldn't pay it back sometimes became the man's slave until his debt was repaid.

Women were told to submit to their husbands, because they couldn't read the torah, women of that time weren't allowed to learn hebrew, which of course it was written it, so had to rely on their fathers or husbands to tell them what it said, hence submit to the men what the word of God said. The bible never condoned not letting the women learn hebrew, it was jewish custom of that time, it merely stated that since the women didn't know what it said, to listen to their fathers and husbands who did know what it said.

So basically, you need to read the bible with an understanding of the society of the time it was written in. The bible never said "go get slaves" or "hit your wife", we were never instructed to do these things. We were just told if in those situations, as many of that time were, what not to do.

2007-03-03 11:05:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

notice that the bible, particularly the Old Testament, is a recording of historical events among the Jewish ppl. also notice that all event relative to the telling of their story are included. Slavery is a part of that. They themselves were slaves. As God's chosen ppl, He did not say..."uh..gee...slavery is good thing, let's enslave my ppl!" The bible does not say that slavery is acceptible. It merely records that it happened.

as for that submitting stuff. that is in the New Testament, and yes, you are right. Some Christians take that waaaay too far. They take it out of context. It did not mean that women are subservient or less than men. It meant, in conjunction with verses that u left out, that in the culture, men should take responsibility for their families and love them more than themselves. In helping them, women should not quarrel with them or seek to rule but seek to help in important family decisions. This is because, in that society, women were not allowed to have an education, and were not deemed very important. It was the man that would suffer for the wrongs, debts, etc of the family.

hope that helps clear up any misconceptions.

2007-03-03 10:53:17 · answer #4 · answered by zeke58 3 · 0 0

Genocide and slavery back in the OT was ONLY allowed for people of the nations Israel were conquering and the surrounding nations because THEY were evil and rejected God. Now why wasnt this made universal? Why was it ok for the Jews to slaughter people and take them into slavery? god was trying to show his power here on earth and it was an illustration of a few things we see pop up in the NT.

1. Anybody who sins and doesnt repent is a slave to sin. (John 8:34) Therefore these people that were not Gods people were put into slavery to illustrate the fact that they ARE slaves deep down anyway!

2. The penalty for sin is DEATH. (Romans 6:23) God HATES sin and the destruction of human life back then was to illustrate what eternal punishment is going to be like. Evil people are going to be wiped out on a massive scale and it is by the hand of God that it is done, not the hands of men. If God commands that people should die, they should die.

2007-03-03 10:51:42 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Respectfully, you need to understand what you are reading. The Bible does NOT teach that slavery is acceptable. God freed His people out of the bondage of slavery. Yes, it says women should submit to their husbands, and husbands should love their wives as Christ loved the church...meaning Christ DIED for the church. So that's pretty devoted both ways. If you have truly accepted Jesus as your savior, then you will know that you are to follow the rules of the land that you are in, but if they contradict the word of God, then you always follow God. If you have a verse that says that slavery is acceptable, I would look up the original Hebrew or Greek and check the context of what is around that verse. The Bible does not teach slavery or beating of slaves!!!!

2007-03-03 10:49:35 · answer #6 · answered by mnrburright 1 · 1 0

Because in any society, following any god, you always know you have the RIGHT god, when he hates all the same people you do!

But you make a good point - that christians really have to pick n choose. If they say the Old Testement matters, then along with those 10 commandments, they need to accept laws about killing people for picking up sticks on the wrong day of the week.

2007-03-03 10:45:50 · answer #7 · answered by Black Parade Billie 5 · 1 0

You err greatly, not knowing the Scriptures...

Just so you understand,.....Certain Scriptures talked about Christian slaves, those who converted to Christ while in the system of slavery....

It doesn't condone slavery ay all.....

You will find that Christianity is about personal responsibility no matter what your circumstances in life....

Even in a position as a slave a man has a responsibility as a Christian to be obedient to his master....just as one today would be obedient to an employer.

It sounds like from your post that you are a rebellious person ...and certainly have not yet understood the concepts of submission to authority....
I'll be prayong for you.

2007-03-03 10:47:31 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes, it does say that a woman is to submit to her husband like she submits to the Lord, but then it goes on to say that a man should love his wife as Christ loved the church. That's a lot! You can't just read part of it and completely leave out the other part.

2007-03-03 10:50:44 · answer #9 · answered by RidiculousTallness 5 · 0 0

true,
the reason that these laws are no longer applicable, is that, as you said, these are no longer common practices. So what you need to realize, is, that because there are rules in the Bible for what was once a common practice, does not translate into, these practices were commands. No where in the bible is a man commanded to own a slave, or to be a slave. This does not equate discarding god's commands, because, as i said, we were not commanded to have slaves.
regarding headship? a woman, is commanded to be in subjection to her husband, but this is not a slavelike relationship, for the husband is also commanded to assign honor to his wife.
the tone of your question reveals that you believe you are a clever person who reads the bible to your advantage and error, so as to falsely accuse others, and you know what?
you have every right to do so, but know this also, you are wrong in your shallow understanding.

2007-03-03 10:46:40 · answer #10 · answered by Tim 47 7 · 0 1

Because there are those who wish to remain in power, who wish to control and TELL US what to do, in the name of a 'religion' - that has always been the way since the dawn of the human - and don't forget - ALL religious books (the various bibles) were written by MAN!!

2007-03-03 10:49:04 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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