Mathew also copies the NARRATIVE. Thats a big no no, when trying to hide the fact your copying.
2007-03-02 19:45:48 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Mathew corrects Marks spelling
2007-03-02 19:52:34 · update #1
Also Mathew intoduces more remarkable events intothe book. which makes more sense, than Mark removed them
2007-03-02 19:54:19 · update #2
@ RealArsen..
Your logic is seriously flawed buddy. Just because the book 'Mathew' is placed before 'Mark' in the new testament does not prove it was written first. Do you think the book of 'Acts' was written after the book of 'John'?
2007-03-02 22:49:35 · update #3
It's all about dogmatic plagiarism.
2007-03-02 19:53:59 · answer #1 · answered by taa 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Logic would tell me that Mark copied Matthew. The Gospel by Matthew is not only the first Gospel in the Bible, but it is also the first book of the New Testament. That would lead to a fair conclusion that Matthew cannot have copied from anyone. That is for argument's sake.
But of course the word of God is not like that. All of the Holy Bible is prophetic - meaning it contains the word of God from God, which makes God to be the author. No prophecy came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit. If it seems as if certain books contain the same information - that proves the accuracy of God.
2007-03-02 21:00:35 · answer #2 · answered by RealArsenalFan 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Matthew, Mark, Luke and John each tell of the time Jesus spent in the years of his ministry, but from their own perspective. A lot of it may seem to be copied when in actuality, it is the same only because they happened to be with Jesus (as his disciples) and heard/saw the same things at the same time. The fact that the 4 gospels follow each other so closely, differing only in small things, only serves to verify the authenticity of the accounts.
2007-03-02 20:25:41 · answer #3 · answered by sixfoothigh 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Mark did not copy the book or Mathew nor the other book of the apostles, it is just but the truth that they testify same events and same miracles that Jesus did. Both apostles are present at the time of the events.
2007-03-02 23:38:30 · answer #4 · answered by picturesque 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1) Then if he copied it there should be no contradictions whatsoever
2) Show me a verse where you think he copied almost word for word. I would guess it is not.
3) That must mean that Mark had a pretty reliable account then
2007-03-02 19:50:39 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Matthew, Mark, Luke and John!
“Gospel of the Kingdom of God”
MARK 1:14 Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the Gospel of The Kingdom of God
From the above Verse, it is clear that Christ, Jesus-The Son of Mary preached the Gospel of The Kingdom of God. This Gospel (The Good News) actually contained the Words of God because of course, it was the Gospel of The Kingdom of God which was preached ONLY by Jesus. There is not even anything as the Gospel of Jesus as noted by Mark 1:1. The words of the Gospel which Jesus (pbuh) preached, were not his words as he says:
JOHN 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.
Matthew and John were actually the disciples of Jesus (pbuh). But did they really write these Gospels by themselves. Do we have Gospels “BY” Matthew and John? From an account in the Gospel of Matthew, we can clearly see that this Gospel is not written by Matthew himself:
MATTHEW 9:9 And as Jesus passed forth from thence, he saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and he saith unto him, Follow me. And he arose, and followed him.
If Matthew would have been the author of this Gospel, he surely would have written that “.. and he saith unto “ME”… and “I” arose and followed him.”
Luke and Mark were not even the disciples of Jesus. Luke was a physician and a companion of St Paul and Mark was an interpreter who probably worked with St Peter in Rome.
The Gospels also differ from each other a lot:
Was Joseph the Son of Jacob (MATTHEW 1:16) or was he the Son of Heli (LUKE 3:23)?
Why isn’t the ascension of Jesus (pbuh) to heaven mentioned in Matthew and John?
These Gospels which were written down 100 Years after Jesus (pbuh) ascension, circulated anonymously, no names were attached to them until almost 200 and the Christian theologians who came up with the idea of having a New Testament was condemned as heretic.
Do we have that True Gospel which Jesus Christ (pbuh) Preached in Hebrew or Aramaic?
Did Jesus (pbuh) asked Matthew, Mark, Luke and John to write these Gospels?
How can Christians rely on the accounts in these Gospels which are the basic Pillars of their Faith?
Who Speaks in the Bible? (i.e. the Authority of the Bible)
Unlike the Qur'an which Muslims believe is 100% the inspiration and actual word of God, the Bible contains writings from various authorities. These include:
1. God speaking - Exo.20:2
2. Prophet speaking - Nehemiah 13:30
3. Disciple speaking - I and II Peter
4. Theologian speaking - 1 Corinthans 7:25 & II Corinthans 11:16
5. Unknown author - The whole book of Hebrews
(See Page G17 (Bible Guide) of New International Version published by International Bible Society, Colarado Springs, US, 1984.)
http://www.thetruecall.com/home/modules.php?name=News&file=article&sid=130&mode=&order=0&thold=0
2007-03-02 19:54:53 · answer #6 · answered by A2Z 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
How do you know Mark didn't copy Matthew?
2007-03-02 19:48:15 · answer #7 · answered by onelm0 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
So you were there and know this first hand because you saw it with your own eyes? To make such a statement is prejudicial to say the least and likely false. I will not rebut because I was not there and to do so might make me a liar and I am not.
2007-03-02 20:02:00 · answer #8 · answered by martha d 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋