why is it a sin if two men have intercorse but even though they cant get pregnant but it is ok for a male and female to have intercorse even though they neither want to get pregnant, the two men are comitting a sin and being promiscuous
2007-03-02 01:46:38 · 17 answers · asked by Kenny K 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
religious teachings are usually based on the idea that any sexual act outside of marriage and for any other purpose than procreation is a "sin".
many very religious and spiritual people have renounced this idea.
homosexuality is a natural thing, look at animals, and the reasons become quite simple. most importantly, when it happens in animals, (starting to work this way in human societies as well thank god) they become the caretakers of the babies whose parents are not able to do so. i also believe it is one of the ways god controls population - i personally don't think humans were ever supposed to take over the entire planet like we have, otherwise the ecosystem wouldn't be so screwed up. put simply, less babies = less strain on the environment.
2007-03-02 02:30:10 · answer #1 · answered by mommynow 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The sin isn't being promiscuos it is being homosexual. Homosexuality is what is wrong, not the fact that they didn't get pregnant. A female and a male can get married, and then it is alright. Otherwise it would be a sin for a male and female if they are not legally married.
2007-03-02 10:01:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is a sin in both cases. Homosexual activity is not allowed.The whole purpose of sex was to share intimacy with a mate when married for the purpose of procreation. Sex outside of marriage is also forbidden. Those are the laws of Christr in the Bible, what you do is between you and Him. You will be held accountable .
2007-03-02 09:53:05 · answer #3 · answered by WC 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The act of having sex in and of itself is not a sin. That concept is put forth due to misinterpretation and misunderstanding.
The Commandment is "Do not have Sex with another man's wife"
If the woman is not your wife when you have sex with her.. then even if she's not already married, she might be "destined" to be a different man's wife.
So.. sex outside of marriage is considered sinful because you are probably having sex with someone else's current or future wife.
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The question of male-male or female-female relations is not as clear in the Bible...
The best references regarding prohibiting it are not direct. But then, the subject was never addressed directly in ancient times. The text seems to indicate that the practice by its "unnatural use" of the anatomy is a direct denouncement of God's design.
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Note that of the 10 commandments. 6 are basically saying "don't be greedy and don't harm others." They are the basic foundation of civilization.
The result of violating any of those basic 6 tenants of civilization is usually a fight if not someone getting killed when there is no fear of law. Violating them = anarchy.
Essentially all law can be traced to those 6 basic ideas.... The Speed limit is based on reducing the chance of you doing harm to to yourself or to others....
2007-03-02 10:04:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The measure to go by is not intent but potential. A homosexual act has no potential to produce life....but rather tears at the fabric of society. A heterosexual act does have, even if it's only in the ideal, the potential to produce life. That's not to say that all heterosexual acts are not sinful...such acts are only permissible in the proper context.
2007-03-02 09:55:20 · answer #5 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is culture, tradition, religion, ignorance. Sin actually has nothing to do with if you can get pregnant or not. And it is a sin to have premarital sex, even if you are a heterosexual couple. I believe however, that you aren't going to hell if you have premarital sex, whether it be homo or hetero sexual. God has other things to worry about. Be happy and be the best person you can be, disregarding your sexual preferences.
2007-03-02 09:52:32 · answer #6 · answered by mfupipoet 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If a man and woman, who are not married have sex it is considered a sin...called fornication (also homosexuality is a sin...whether "married" or not). (1 Cor. 6:9,10) If the man and woman ARE married to each other, it is not a sin. However, the sole purpose of sex between a man and woman married to each other is NOT just for the purpose of having children. It is only one of the purposes. (Proverbs 5:18,19)
2007-03-02 10:08:32 · answer #7 · answered by Badriya 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in todays world homosexuality is accepted but in the bible God himself looks down upon it. Many religions will just ignore this part of the bible and say "God loves everyone no matter what" And this is true God is loving but it does say in the bible that its a sin and he doesnt approve. Thats why its a sin. Plus sex is MEANT to be shared between man and woman, husband and wife. Man on Man, and woman on woman action is not meant to occur.
2007-03-02 09:50:45 · answer #8 · answered by aaront_y3 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
No wonder why you are confused. It's not okay to have sex at all unless you are trying to get pregnant. Two men or two women having sex is an abomination. Life was created to continue. Get it? If not, please pick up the Holy Bible and read it for clarification. Thank you and may GOD bless.
2007-03-02 09:52:09 · answer #9 · answered by cookie 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is a sin, unless you're doing it to procreate, even I know that. We're all gonna burn. Only you're gonna burn harder when you finally come out of the closet.
2007-03-02 09:55:20 · answer #10 · answered by guicho79 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋