because men invented language. And to the first answerer, you came from a woman, so you better realize that she is above you. YOU are secondary, she is PRIMARY.
2007-03-01 20:49:49
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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God formed Adam out of dust from the ground, blew into his nostrils the breath of life, “and the man came to be a living soul.” (Ge 2:7; 1Co 15:45)
MAN, source:
A number of Hebrew and Greek terms refer to man. ’A·dham′ means “man; human; earthling man; mankind” (generic); ’ish, “man; an individual; a husband”; ’enohsh′, “a mortal man”; ge′ver, “an able-bodied man”; za·khar′, “a male”; a few other Hebrew words are also sometimes translated “man.” The Greek an′thro·pos means “man; mankind” (generic); a·ner′, “a man; a male person; a husband.”
Jehovah later caused a deep sleep to 'come over' Adam, during which he took one of Adam’s ribs & used it in forming the woman. Therefore, when she was presented to the man, Adam could say: “This is at last bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh.” He called her Woman, ’ish·shah′, “because from man this one was taken.” (Ge 2:21-23) Adam later gave her the name Eve (meaning “Living One”).—Ge 3:20.
WOMAN, source:
An adult human female, beyond the age of puberty.
The Hebrew expression for woman is ’ish·shah′ (literally, a female man), which is also rendered “wife.”
Similarly, the Greek term gy·ne′ is translated both “woman” and “wife.”
So, a woman is a man, of the female gender.
A man is not a male female man.
2007-03-03 14:41:29
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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For some questions, we cannot find answers. This question is like this. Our elder ancestors found some words to mean specifically for something.
For example, can you tell me why we call "motherland" instead of "fatherland" OR in the computer why we call "motherboard" instead of "fatherboard" ?
So, either it is mankind or womenkind it refer the same meaning.
2007-03-02 05:58:31
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answer #3
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answered by Ravi 2
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English evolved from languages that were gender neutral.
The engendered forms of the word "man" (singular) are:
Man: Masculine
Man: Neutral
Woman: Feminine
Since most English speakers do not understand that a noun nas gender, this is poorly understood by many.
2007-03-02 09:04:19
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answer #4
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answered by LabGrrl 7
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Simple.
Womankind is 9 letters, mankind is 7.
I'm lazy so I prefer to write the 7 letter one.
2007-03-02 05:22:04
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answer #5
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answered by Adia Azrael 4
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Mankind refers to humna beings. It has nothing to do with gender. The pronoun for 'mankind' is 'it'.
Later you may ask, why is it 'human beings', why not 'huwoman beings'.
Practically, if you start calling it womankind, you will have to difine the term, accept it globally, add it in the language, etc.
:-)
2007-03-03 00:54:43
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answer #6
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answered by plato's ghost 5
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If the term "mankind" bothers you, and if you believe "womankind" is kind of condescending, then say "humankind." That covers everyone.
Or if you want to be politically correct and gender-neutral, say "person-kind." That makes me want to puke but it might make some people happy.
2007-03-02 05:08:32
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answer #7
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answered by link955 7
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Mankind is just a metaphor of all people,there is no sense in having two words that basically mean the same.Also in the day when this word was created it was written that God created man in his image.
2007-03-02 04:51:03
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answer #8
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answered by one10soldier 6
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Only small minds are concerned with titles and names. I'd be more concerned with salary parity, equal access to healthcare and fairness in parental rights.
Semantics is for people who don't really want to confront the issues.
2007-03-02 04:48:41
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answer #9
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answered by wigginsray 7
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Well, Man has less letters so it's more basic, basic usually means first and everything after that is an improvement. So women are an improvement (:P) but still secondary.
2007-03-02 04:51:56
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answer #10
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answered by David H 3
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Because all man are same, but women vary with a combination of several kinds, each woman has got a different quality in her.
2007-03-02 04:50:13
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answer #11
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answered by Sona 1
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