Does anyone know if back in the late 1930's and 1940's, if a wife was committing adultery, and then got divorced, would the adultery be enough to have her children taken away from her and custody given to the father?
2007-03-01 09:06:37 · 4 answers · asked by xxkcfanxx 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
This has nothing to do with religion. Custody of children is purely a matter for the court to decide.
2007-03-01 14:23:31 · answer #1 · answered by Mommy_to_seven 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why just Catholic, adultry was frowned upon by all religions including non-believers. Adultry was not acceptable at that time frame. It would have been the decision of the courts of which parent got costody. I believe at that time the costody would have been given to the father because the mother who committed the adultry would have been considered a tramp/loose etc.
2007-03-01 09:18:05 · answer #2 · answered by Dawn 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a civil legal issue and not a religious one.
Times have changed, and the courts no longer seem to care about relative guilt when it comes to divorce.
Talk to a good lawyer, but keep an eye on your wallet, or purse.
2007-03-01 09:17:14 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
this sounds like a legal question, not a catholic question.
2007-03-01 09:10:40 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋