2007-03-01 08:02:59 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
i was searching for the author of a quote but looks like i can`t find him... anyway my answer is: " The omnipotence of god is proved by the fact that he doesn`t need to exist in order to save us"
2007-03-01 08:06:51 · answer #1 · answered by Sir Alex 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God dwells in eternity. We do not understand eternity because we do not know how many dimensions that entails. Science seems to think we have more than 10. It is no problem for God to be omnipresent in a literal sense. But that word falls short of describing it. The word multi-dimensional would be better.
Ps 139:8, in case it is used against Chippy, refers to "the grave". Regarding hell, yes, God's light and love will be absent there. It is referred to as "outer darkness" which denotes a dimension where God will not abide.
Omnipresent means that no matter where you are on the physical plane, God will be there. He is not limited by our 4 dimensional space-time. On the dimensional side, there are areas where God will not abide--ie Gehenna.
2007-03-01 08:11:12 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Omnipresence is a buzz word, a better way to think of it is God can go anywhere, be anywhere, and do so with out the constrants of time
2007-03-01 08:12:31 · answer #3 · answered by Phil B 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
lol-I love your question progression!
Omnipresent is a theological term, made by humans. It is trying to describe what verses like Psalm 139:8.
In other words- when a theologian reads verses like Ps. 139:8 & others like it, they attempt to catagorize what we can know about God in terms & in an outline so people can read based on subject. Theologians are about organizing & explaining.
I recommend you read Wayne Grudem's Systematic Theology. It does a GREAT job at explaining it. I had him as a prof at Trinity Evangelical Divinity School & he is a great guy. You may actually grow to like him.
Last- If you would be willing to read it, email me & I will send the book to you.
2007-03-01 08:19:25 · answer #4 · answered by Jeff- <3 God <3 people 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think omnipresence is silly literally...
Well, I think it's silly figuratively, but my son thinks I'm omnipresent figuratively.
2007-03-01 08:06:53 · answer #5 · answered by LabGrrl 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither, only metaphorically. It's a perjorative manipulated by witty athiests, who don't favor relinquishing drugs, lust, greed or any other of the more physical aspects of intellectual reality. Tell me, are you gay? Would you like some crack? Did you cheat on your taxes?
I only mean this in a figurative way....no offense.
2007-03-01 08:11:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
if hes omnipresent, that means hes present in hell too.
2007-03-01 08:06:58 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
on figuratively, which means He have knowledge as though He is present everywhere
2007-03-03 21:52:53 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
He sees you when you're sleeping.
He knows when you're awake.
He knows if you've been bad or good.....
Or wait, that wasn't God, was it?
Never mind.
^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^ ^v^
2007-03-01 08:07:38 · answer #9 · answered by NHBaritone 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
~~~ MB ,,, It depends on The Designer(s).
2007-03-01 08:37:16 · answer #10 · answered by Sensei TeAloha 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋