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Of the frequent answers given by christian theists, I'd like to know the criteria of deciding when the "not literal" one is applicable. For instance, some say the worldwide flood as told in the bible is "not literal" for some reason. However, a man rising from the dead is literal. Why aren't the "four corners" of the planet seen as literal but turning water into wine* is? Some say unicorns in the bible aren't literal unicorns, but talking animals are. I'd like to know the criteria for future reference. Thanks for any honest answers beforehand.

*I know the bible doesn't say Jesus or anyone turned water into wine. But many people who claim to read the bible believe this nevertheless.

2007-03-01 06:09:17 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

martha d: your assumptions abound. I'm not seeking to justify unbelief, since one doesn't need to ever justify not believing in the supernatural. I just want to know when "literal" is applicable vs "not literal."

2007-03-01 06:56:15 · update #1

As for the water into wine: The actual story that described the event only says that people did not know how the wine got into the water jugs. In John 4:46, it was mostly used to pinpoint the location, the writer probably wrote the shortened assumption instead of "where water containers suddenly contained wine instead," especially since the purpose is to establish Jesus as magical.

2007-03-01 06:58:56 · update #2

6 answers

This is a good question and I will try to do my best to answer it.

In my study below are prophecies that describe the coming Messiah. You will note that I section which are literal, which are figurative, which are foreshadowing, which are types.

We get into our most trouble when we allegorize scripture vs. taking it literally. Sure, we can allegorize the flood. But you would be going against Jesus who spoke of it as being literal. Sir Robert Anderson of Scotland Yard poo pooed prophetic scripture speaking of Israel gathering together as a nation again (see "The Coming Prince"). Yet less than a century later, he was proven wrong.

The scripture speak of "rightly dividing the Word of truth". I have met many who do not rightly divide the Word. One group says that the church is "spiritual Israel" and that the Jew no longer exists. Wrong! The Bible speaks prophetically of literal Jews, from literal tribes, out of literal Israel.

All events in the gospel are literal events. The parables (except for rich man and Lazarus) are allegorical--and usually explained by Jesus. Events in the Tonakh are literal, but can also be types of the Messiah (example: the book of Ruth). A good illustration of this is the serpent in the wilderness. A literal event that pointed to the coming Messiah.

I hope this helps.

2007-03-01 06:12:15 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well, that's sort of a complicated question to answer here but let me see if I can do it as briefly as possible.

In general I think, you can take literally any historical accounts including the gospels, which actually DO say that Jesus turned water into wine (John 4:46). Sometimes the historical account you are reading contains clearly delineated VISIONS. For example, the book of Daniel is generally a book containing a part of the history of the Nation of Israel, but it includes a number of visions David received, including one where he saw beasts ... fearsome beasts ... that he later explained represented world powers.

The Book of Revelation of almost entirely made up of symbolism. Only a small part of it is meant to be taken literally.

2007-03-01 14:25:22 · answer #2 · answered by Q&A Queen 7 · 0 0

I know that my Bible in John Chapter 2 says Jesus turned water into wine. I also know that my Father gave many instructions in the Old Testament to people who would have questioned His instructions if He had told them things which contradicted their senses. For example: I know that Father God did not tell Joshua that the earth revolved around the sun and that the planet was spinning because Joshua would have thought that someone other than God was speaking to him. It would not have made sense to him. So Father God told Joshua to do something that made sense and allowed him to obey God without causing a nervous breakdown. We have since learned of the earths orbit but this would be news to Joshua. People like yourself who try to justify unbelief are seeking into something you have no understanding of. You must first seek Father God, thru Jesus Christ, otherwise nothing you read will ever make sense to you. This I guarantee.

2007-03-01 14:36:35 · answer #3 · answered by martha d 5 · 0 0

There were different writing styles and structures way back when. Some were literal....some were hyperbole....some were metaphors.....

You have to do some basic exegesis while studying scripture to know when to use what.

2007-03-01 14:13:17 · answer #4 · answered by primoa1970 7 · 0 0

When a pious Theist tells me "Screw you, asshole!!" (Which happens often when I raise this type of questions); I ask them whether I should take those words literally and fetch a screw and screw driver, or whether I am indeed a full-sized talking sphincter outlet.

2007-03-01 14:18:27 · answer #5 · answered by Wellhung Atheist 2 · 0 0

Hm...John 2:3-11 must be omitted from your bible...

2007-03-01 14:23:07 · answer #6 · answered by CHRISTINA 4 · 0 1

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