Baptism is a public declaration of ones faith. You can't do it for someone else. Yet read this. 1 Cor 15:29
"Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?"
What do you think he is talking about there? This is absolutely not practiced in Christian churches today.
2007-03-01
02:35:44
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25 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Just Forgiven - 1 Corinthians 15 verse 29.
2007-03-01
02:42:05 ·
update #1
Storm Chaser - Haaaa!!!! Thanks. I like my all seeing eye, too but maybe I'll switch back and forth just for you.
2007-03-01
02:44:58 ·
update #2
Journey - No offense intended. I didn't know any churches or religions practiced this.
2007-03-01
02:47:42 ·
update #3
Angie - Thanks for your thought answer but once you die it is too late to accept Christ. "Man is appointed to die once, then comes judgement."
2007-03-01
05:13:34 ·
update #4
Daisykris - Great scripture. It seems to be saying what Angie was saying. That is going to be my next question.
2007-03-01
05:20:22 ·
update #5
(29-32) More reasons to believe in the principle of resurrection.
Otherwise, what will they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all? Why then are they baptized for the dead? And why do we stand in jeopardy every hour? I affirm, by the boasting in you which I have in Christ Jesus our Lord, I die daily. If, in the manner of men, I have fought with beasts at Ephesus, what advantage is it to me? If the dead do not rise, “Let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die!”
a. Otherwise, what will they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead to not rise at all? What was being baptized for the dead? It is a mysterious passage, and there have been more than thirty different attempts to interpret it.
i. The plain meaning of the original language is that some people are being baptized on behalf of those who have died. Paul’s point is “If there is no resurrection, why are they doing this? What is the point if there is no life after death?”
ii. Significantly, Paul does not say, “we baptize for the dead,” but asks what will they do who are baptized for the dead, and Why then are they baptized for the dead? Therefore, Paul is referring to a pagan custom of vicarious baptism for the dead. “Paul simply mentions the superstitious custom without approving it and uses it to fortify his argument that there is a resurrection from the dead.” (Mare)
iii. Paul certainly does not approve of the practice; he merely says that if there is no resurrection, why would the custom take place? The Mormon practice of baptism for the dead is neither Scriptural nor sensible.
iv. Paul’s point is plain: “The pagans even believe in the resurrection because they baptize for the dead. The pagans have the sense to believe in resurrection, but some of you Corinthian Christians do not!”
v. Clarke said of this verse, “This is certainly the most difficult verse in the New Testament; for, notwithstanding the greatest and wisest of men have laboured to explain it, there are to this day nearly as many different interpretations of it as there are interpreters.”
2007-03-01 02:42:44
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Many of the Corinthian Christians were sadducaical (they didn't believe in afterlife) but they were still involved in the practice of being baptized for the dead. Paul was calling them on their inconsistencies to tell them that both of their practices were missing the point. There is going to be a resurrection (though Corinthians didn't believe it) and that being baptized for another person does no good, particularly if they are already dead. Many theologists believe that this verse is where the LDS (Mormon) practice of baptism of the dead comes from.
2007-03-01 02:46:19
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answer #2
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answered by girlpreacher 2
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My bible words it this way "Otherwise, what will they do who are being baptized for the purpose of (being) dead ones? If the dead are not be be raised up at all, why are they also being baptized for the purpose of being such?" He goes on to say in verse 32 "If we are not to be raised up, "let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we are to die."
What Paul was saying is if there is no resurrection as some where saying, what good would it do to be baptized. Why not be like the rest of the unbelievers and eat, drink and be merry because when we die there is no hope of living again.
It has nothing to do with being baptized for the dead. That is not a christian practice. One can only be baptized for themselves. It is a public declaration of your personal decision to dedicate your live to serve God. You cannot do this for someone else.
2007-03-01 03:02:32
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The entirety of Chapter 15 deals with Christ's resurrection. Verses 29 - 34 deal with those who deny a literal, physical resurrection. Paul wishes to point out this is a non-sensical position.
At verse 29a, Paul wonders why someone would be baptized in the name of "the dead" (an unresurrected Christ). If they believe in a "dead" Christ, what hope do they have in the hereafter? None -- so this effectively makes them dead, too! In verse 29b, Paul makes the point that if "the dead" (believers in Jesus who don't believe in a resurrection) don't also arise at their own resurrection, why did they submit to baptism in the first place, since it's an outward symbol of our eventual death and rebirth (resurrection)?
2007-03-01 02:52:11
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answer #4
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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I do not know the exact meaning, but I have a few ideas, however since I'm not sure I will not share them yet.
However, I do not see this as a normative practice because it is not commanded, nor is it spoken of at any other time.
The main thrust of the verse is that why bother baptizing for the dead if there is no resurrection.
I will look into it a bit more and comment again.
2007-03-01 02:46:15
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answer #5
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answered by Solafide55 2
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I think if we read the whole chapter it will become more clear. Paul goes on to talk about the Day on which we will get our new bodies and such....
I'll be back shortly after I look into this......
Ok...here's what the Amplified Bible says:
28 However, when everything is subjected to Him, then the Son Himself will also subject Himself to [the Father] Who put all things under Him, so that God may be all in all [be everything to everyone, supreme, the indwelling and controlling factor of life].
29 Otherwise, what do people mean by being [themselves] baptized in behalf of the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?
30 [For that matter], why do I live [dangerously as I do, running such risks that I am] in peril every hour?
People were simply not believing in the ressurrection.....like the Sadducees.....and they apparently were doing ritualistic things like this to no avail.
2007-03-01 02:40:00
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answer #6
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answered by primoa1970 7
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Paul was proving the fact that there is a Resurrection using the practice of baptisms for the dead as his logical evidence - he asking - why would they even do that if we were never resurrected?
You're right it is a very personal ordinance that an individual must choose...now We learn in 1 Peter 4:6 that the Gospel is being preached to the dead: "For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit."
So lets say a dead person is preached the gospel, they accept it, they love it - then what? We still know that, as Christ told Nicodemus, that baptism is essential for salvation - so how can this person be baptized who has no body to be baptized with?
The answer is baptisms for the dead.
Actually the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints does practice baptisms for dead. It is done vicariously, meaning a living person does it for and in behalf of someone who is dead. But the dead person must still choose for themselves whether or not to accept this act done for them. It is still an individual choice and declaration.
Some people think we're crazy for doing this - but I think it's a beautiful practice, and it really shows God's mercy and fairness, in that He gives everybody a chance to hear and choose to accept the gospel, even if they didn't get that chance in this life.
2007-03-01 03:04:04
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answer #7
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answered by daisyk 6
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the baptism: Or proxy baptism: If salvation is only through Christ, what happens to all the billions of people who lived and died without ever even hearing of Christ?
they are faced with a dilemma: they need baptism to enter into a covenant with Christ and receive a washing away of their sins, etc., but they lack physical bodies in which to be baptized. This is why the early Christians and the restored Church have the practice of baptism for the dead, referred to but not explained by Paul in I Cor. 15:29
This is not practiced in the Christian Church but was practiced in the beginning by some followers.
2007-03-01 02:39:34
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answer #8
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answered by Tribble Macher 6
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It is practiced in Christian Churches today! That is if you believe that people in the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter day Saints are a form of "Christian."
I have been a Christian all my life but gone to various denominations. (aka Lutheran, United Church of Christ, Church of God, Deciples of Christ, independent churches...) so I have a wide view of this. My husband is LDS, and recently I decided to convert also because I like the family-oriented-ness of the church. Here is the LDS view concerning that topic:
You've probably heard that LDS members "baptize" their dead relatives in LDS temples. What this means is, (and is why LDS members are so interested in Geneology) when dead family members were not exposed to the gospel and did not have an opportunity to fully understand or accept the gospel - or it is unknown if they did - the living member of the church can be baptized in water FOR them, by proxy. Now this does not mean that we forcibly baptize dead relatives.
What it does do is open up the opportunity for that person to accept the gospel and to accept Jesus Christ even though they are no longer physically living, and just a spirit. It is believed that all dead people are still able to make choices that affect their eternity, however once that person is physically dead they are dependant on someone in the physical world. So... overall it's still best to get it right while we are on earth!! That is no excuse to not accept Jesus Christ while we are alive... because what if your relatives forget about you, or also do not accept Jesus Christ and get baptized?
That's a pretty basic rundown of what they believe. Do I personally believe this?? I don't know. Would I participate in it? Sure, why not. I don't think it could harm anyone, since the person who is physically dead is not being forced - it just opens up a choice for them. They get the ultimate choice of whether to accept the Lord, or not.
I hope this helps in understanding that verse. It has puzzled me for a long time also.
2007-03-01 03:03:52
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answer #9
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answered by Angie 4
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First of all, baptism is NOT a public declaration of faith; you are confusing that with the 'Apostles Creed', and other prayers. In 1st Corinthians St Paul is most likely talking about the 'dead' in the lack of faith sense and not a corpse. Try reading acts:16, and Hebrews:6 and you will get a better understanding.
2007-03-01 06:19:57
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answer #10
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answered by DanielofD 2
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