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Since Mary wasn't David descendant, but Aaron, and Joseph who were David descendant. (Look at Gospel of Matthew and Luke)

2007-03-01 01:53:46 · 8 answers · asked by Kendy 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Pardon me,

In Matthew 1 and Luke 3, both Gospel told about Joseph family line not Mary. Neither in Bible has wrote that Joseph and Mary have blood relationship.

Also Luke wrote that Mary was Elisabeth relative, whom was Aaron descendant.

Please give me a reason about this.

2007-03-01 18:54:12 · update #1

Both of Matthew and Luke family line instead made me even more confuse.

Hey, I just made 1 more question about Zerubbabel, please answer my other question outside.

2007-03-01 19:43:45 · update #2

8 answers

My bible- the NIVstudy bible, says in
Romans 1v3
regarding His son as to his 'human' nature was a descendant of David, v4 & who through the Spirit of Holiness was declared with Power to be The Son of God.

The Word seed here as it is found in the KJV makes no difference to Jesus 'Diety.
If I had all day I could go through cross references,different bible versons etc about this etc.
But the Truth of the matter Jesus was the (surragate, for want of a better word) child of Mary & Joesephs.
He was !00% God. .......but born of man, Son of man !! Son of God
If this were not true we might as well all give up!
The second Adam.
-Because Jesus was perfect, no human man is born without sin.
Jesus was the perfect & only atonement for our sin.
A spottless, sacraficial Lamb.
I hope I haven't gone too fast for you?
God Bless you & isn't it great to get into the Word of God, The meat!

2007-03-08 19:37:32 · answer #1 · answered by ? 6 · 0 0

They were both David's descendants. Matthew's Gospel gives Joseph's bloodline, Luke's gives Mary's. Look closely at the wording of each passage.

2007-03-01 01:57:04 · answer #2 · answered by koresh419 5 · 2 0

Mary was not Elisabeth cousin as we use it

Luke 1:36

a[cousin] the greek word is sungenes ( NT:4773), countryman, not cousins in the sense we use it. Translated "cousin" (Luke 1:36,58); "kin" (Mark 6:4); "kinsmen" (Luke 14:12; John 18:26; Acts 10:24; Rom 9:3; 16:7,11,21); and "kinsfolk" (Luke 2:44; 21:16). That she was from the tribe of Levi is clear in Luke 1:5, while both Joseph and Mary were from the tribe of Judah through David (note, Luke 1:27)

2007-03-06 12:48:06 · answer #3 · answered by Laniermar 2 · 0 1

“Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh”
The New Testament begins and ends with a reference to Jesus as the son of David. Using the various genealogies of the Old Testament, both Matthew and Luke trace His rightful claim to the throne of David.
Paul states Christ right to reign in two ways:
a. Positionally
He is “the seed of David.”
b. Personally
He is “Jesus Christ our Lord.” Though the world would deny His throne rights today, every believer is duty bound to own him as Lord and Christ

2007-03-01 01:58:40 · answer #4 · answered by Preacher 4 · 2 0

Peace be with you.

Paul is not speaking the words of Jesus he is speaking his own words.

In the Gospels it is said that Jesus was from the house of David. Aaron was from the house of Levi as was Moses. Mary and Joseph came from the house of Judah. But Jesus seed was from God, not from man, as was Eve's

However David sinned against God, the Word of God, from Nathan, told David not to build him (God) a house to dwell in, because God had always dwelled with us and our houses.

Jesus made a house for God, he restored our house.

This is why Jesus told us that the Holy Ghost would bring to our remembrance whatsoever he had spoken unto us.

It is the actual words that Jesus spoke that cleanse us. Not the words of others, including Peter, Paul or Moses.

2007-03-07 14:35:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Mary WAS from the line of David. And so was Joseph.
Luke says; " 23Now Jesus himself was about thirty years old when he began his ministry. He was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph, " The "of" is from the greek idiom being understood in the genitive case of the word meaning son in law. The reason for this is at the time it was written our "heritage" was only through our fathers. This was traditon. BUT God wanted to show his bloodline was from David.
NOW look at Luke 3:31, " 31the son of Melea, the son of Menna,
the son of Mattatha, the son of Nathan,
the son of David, 32the son of Jesse,
the son of Obed, the son of Boaz,
the son of Salmon,[a] the son of Nahshon,"
She was from David.
This is well know. Look at comentaries if you want to read more from bible scholars.

2007-03-01 02:10:13 · answer #6 · answered by Jeanmarie 7 · 1 1

Mary was decsended from David thru his son Nathan,what are you reading?The reason Jesus can't be of the flesh of Joseph thru Solomon and David is because Solomon's line was cursed from the Kingly line at his decsendant Coniah (Jeconiah).See Jeremiah.

2007-03-01 01:59:51 · answer #7 · answered by AngelsFan 6 · 1 0

I'll bite...WHY??

2007-03-01 01:57:55 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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