English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

The two geneologies in the gospels of Luke and Matthew seem almost completely different after King David. What are the reasoning for these discrepancies?

2007-03-01 01:22:01 · 14 answers · asked by Jason 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

14 answers

Matthew's gospel documents Joseph's genealogy; Luke's gospel documents Mary's genealogy.

Here's further information:

http://www.messiahnj.org/af-throne.htm

and

http://www.jewsforjesus.org/publications/issues/5_6/genealogy

EDIT: "JCBoyle," you write about the so-called "Quirinius objection." This objection has been blown out of the water time and time again by Biblical and historical scholars. Do a web search and you will find many sources of explanation.

2007-03-01 01:26:18 · answer #1 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 2 0

An examination of Matthew’s account exhibits that extra advantageous than 40 p.c. of the fabric contained therein isn't modern in the different 3 Gospels. unique is Matthew’s family contributors tree of Jesus (Mt a million:a million-sixteen), which takes an attitude diverse from that set out by utilising Luke (Lu 3:23-38). A assessment of the two exhibits that Matthew gave the criminal family contributors tree with the aid of Jesus’ adoptive father Joseph, on a similar time as Luke curiously gave Jesus’ organic family contributors tree. different incidents pronounced in basic terms in Matthew’s account are: Joseph’s reaction to Mary’s being pregnant, the visual charm of an angel to Joseph in a dream (Mt a million:18-25), the pass to of the astrologers, the flight to Egypt, the slaughter of the extra youthful boys in Bethlehem and its districts (chap 2), and the dream of Pilate’s spouse concerning Jesus (27:19).

2016-10-02 03:57:23 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well, as a Christian believer, I do not have a problem with the discrepencies. The Bible is a book written BY man, but inspired BY God.

The Old Testament starts out with 2 contradictory storys of the Creation. The first version starts at Gn 1-1 and ends at Gn 2-4. The 2nd version starts at Gn2-5 and ends at 2-24. In the first one God creates Man & Woman at the same time & they do not name all the animals that God has created. In the 2nd version God creates Man first, and Adam names all the animals. THEN god creates Woman because Adam is lonely.

The New Testament is full of discrepencies, but most striking is Lk 2-1 through 2-4:
"1In those days Caesar Augustus issued a decree that a census should be taken of the entire Roman world. 2(This was the first census that took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria.) 3And everyone went to his own town to register." NIV.

And compare that to MT 2:1
"1After Jesus was born in Bethlehem in Judea, during the time of King Herod. . ." NIV.

The problem here is: Qurinius (Lk) became governer of Syria in 6 AD. But Herod (Mt) died around 13-12 BC, and his kingdom was split amongst his sons. Maybe it was not "King" Herod. Luke 3:1 refers to Herod Antipas, but he calls him "tetrarch." One of Herod the Great's other son's was called Herod Archelaus, who reigned until 6 AD, but was always referred to as Archelaus or Herod Archelaus, and Mt 2:22 uses this name. So there is at least a 10-year gap between King Herod and Quirinius coming to power.

Caesar Agustus' "decree to tax the whole world" If we are talking about during the time of Herod the Great, there would have been no need to tax the Jews, because they were a client state and not under direct Roman rule. In 6 AD Augustus was collecting taxes for his army, but this applied only to Roman citizens and Herod the Great was dead. If we say Quirinius was governor in 6 AD, (which he was), and the Romans were to tax the whole world (which happened in 6 AD, but only for Roman citizens) then Matthew's Wise Men, massacre of the innocents, and the flight to Egypt are wrong because Herod had been dead 10 years or more.

If Quirinius had a census in 6 AD (which he did) it was a local census only and had nothing to do with Caesar Augustus. If it were a Roman census (which it might have been) then Joseph would have stayed in Nazareth because the Romans didn't care about Jewish geneologies, and Jews were exempt from serving in the Roman army and didn't have to register as such.

So with both the OT and the NT there are major discrepencies. However this does not hinder a belief in God, Jesus, or evolution. It is only some believers who will tell us that The Bible is the "inerrant word of God." But the rest of us are not so sure.

2007-03-01 03:15:33 · answer #3 · answered by jcboyle 5 · 0 1

Although many people point out that one genealogy is from his father, and one is from his mother, neither Luke or Matthew make that clear. Both indicate that they are talking about Joseph's heritage. Many Bible apologists just say that it was the two different parents genealogy as an easy way out. The reality is Matthew copied Mark, added his own stuff, including the genealogy to give it legitimacy. Luke also copied Mark, added some of the same things Matt did but with several differences, and he never saw Matthew's version so when he added the genealogy it was different. Matthew and Luke were composed some 50 to 80 years after Jesus died, in different locations, for different groups. Matthews group were Jewish Christians, Luke's group were all Gentiles. It is easy to see the differences in style, composition, and grammar.

2007-03-01 01:36:01 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 0 2

Luke's Genealogy starts at Adam and goes to David. Matthew's Genealogy starts at Abraham and goes to David. When the genealogies arrive at David, they split with David's sons: Nathan (Mary's side) and Solomon (Joseph's side).
There is no discrepancy because one genealogy is for Mary and the other is for Joseph. It was customary to mention the genealogy through the father even though it was clearly known that it was through Mary.

Breaking up genealogies into male and female representations was acceptable in the ancient Near East culture since it was often impolite to speak of women without proper conditions being met: male presence, etc. Therefore, one genealogy is of Mary and the other of Joseph, even though both mention Joseph. In other words, the Mary was counted "in" Joseph and under his headship.

2007-03-01 01:27:57 · answer #5 · answered by SpiritRoaming 7 · 3 0

Maybe instead of picking apart every little discrepancy you should just look at what HE was trying to teach. Remember we are spiritual beings having a human experience, not the other way around. Peace and love.

2007-03-01 01:41:11 · answer #6 · answered by lynjen31 3 · 0 0

one is the line through his earthly father Joseph the other is through His mother Mary - both are descended from King David

2007-03-01 01:25:26 · answer #7 · answered by servant FM 5 · 3 0

One is the genealogy side of Marry and the other is the genealogy side of her husband.

2007-03-01 01:26:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

the bible is a discrepancy! the worse one ever written in the history of humanity and there are really stupid people that believe that the bible is the word of God! lmao @ the really stupid people who believe that the bible is the word of God!!!!!

the real reason for the discrepancies in the bible is that 99.9% of the bible has been corrupted by the people who wrote the bible or were told How to write the bible - with lies and deception!

"religion is Spiritual fraud"; "religion is the Worse invention of humanity" - Jesus Christ

Create a private, personal, direct, divine relationship with Our Creator and save your Soul
from religion.

Only with Our Creator's Love and Peace will we be Truely Free!

Without God, there is No Love; Without religion, there are No Wars!

2007-03-01 01:28:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 6

I see no discrepancies. It is only how you read & Understand with a spiritual mind. Carnal minds can not comprehend the spiritual minds.

2007-03-01 01:26:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 4

fedest.com, questions and answers