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The Messiah must be a physical descendant of David (Romans 1:3 & Acts 2:30). Yet, how could Jesus meet this requirement since his genealogies in Matthew 1 and Luke 3 show he descended from David through Joseph, who was not his natural father because of the Virgin Birth. Hence, this prophecy could not have been fulfilled.

2007-02-28 12:33:29 · 13 answers · asked by Dutch Dolly 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

What the bible doesn't tell you is that his mother "Mary" was actually Mariaamne of Herod. To put it in easy to understand terms she was the granddaughter of King Herod. In Jewish tradition, family line follows the mother's line not the father's, so through King Herod, Jesus was of the line of David.
Jesus was also a legitimate heir to the throne of Herod, and if you understand this, it makes far more sense why Herod was threatened by him, and wanted to kill the babies...

2007-03-02 07:27:41 · answer #1 · answered by Boston Bluefish 6 · 0 0

Both Mary and Joseph were descendants of David. Therefore Jesus is the legal descendant of David through Joseph, because of the virgin birth; but the natural descendant of David through Mary. Matthew's genealogy gives the line of Joseph. Since women were never reckoned in a genealogical line, the genealogy in Luke states "Jesus was being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was of Heli, which was of Matthat..." and then lists the descendants of Mary back to David, back to Abraham, and back to God. That is why the line of descent in Matthew and Luke are not the same.

2007-02-28 20:59:25 · answer #2 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 0 0

Matthew 1 and Luke 3 are genealogy's through Mary and Joseph ... where it says heli that is the genealogy of the virgin mary .. heli was the virgin marys father.

2007-02-28 20:42:34 · answer #3 · answered by Borinke 1 · 1 0

Mary the mother of Jesus was of the tribe of Judah and a descendant of David; through her, Jesus held the natural hereditary right to “the throne of David his father.” (Luke 1:32) Mary was of the tribe of Judah and a descendant of David. Hence it could be said of her son Jesus that he “sprang from the seed of David according to the flesh.” (Ro 1:3) Through his adoptive father Joseph, a descendant of David, Jesus had a legal right to David’s throne, and through his mother, as the “offspring,” “seed,” and “root” of David, he held the natural hereditary right to “the throne of David his father.”—Mt 1:1-16; Lu 1:32; Ac 13:22, 23; 2Ti 2:8; Re 5:5; 22:16.

Jesus’ lineage is the first evidence the Christian Greek Scriptures give in support of his Messiahship. The Bible foretold that the Messiah would come from the family line of King David. (Psalm 132:11, 12; Isaiah 11:1, 10) Matthew’s Gospel begins: “The book of the history of Jesus Christ, son of David, son of Abraham.” Matthew backs up this bold claim by tracing Jesus’ descent through the line of his adoptive father, Joseph. (Matthew 1:1-16) Luke’s Gospel traces Jesus’ lineage through his natural mother, Mary, back through David and Abraham to Adam. (Luke 3:23-38) Thus the Gospel writers thoroughly document their claim that Jesus was an heir of David, both in a legal and in a natural sense.

Even the most skeptical opponent of Jesus’ Messiahship cannot deny Jesus’ claim to be a son of David. Why? There are two reasons. One, that claim was widely repeated in Jerusalem for decades before the city was destroyed in 70 C.E. (Compare Matthew 21:9; Acts 4:27; 5:27, 28.) If the claim was false, any of Jesus’ opponents—and he had many—could have proved Jesus a fraud simply by checking his lineage in the genealogies in the public archives. But history has no record of anyone challenging Jesus’ descent from King David. Evidently, the claim was unassailable. No doubt Matthew and Luke copied the salient names for their accounts directly from the public records.

Second, sources outside the Bible confirm the general acceptance of Jesus’ lineage. For instance, the Talmud records a fourth-century rabbi as making a scurrilous attack on Mary, the mother of Jesus, for ‘playing the harlot with carpenters’; but the same passage concedes that “she was the descendant of princes and rulers.” An earlier example is the second-century historian Hegesippus. He related that when the Roman Caesar Domitian wanted to exterminate any descendants of David, some enemies of the early Christians denounced the grandsons of Jude, Jesus’ half brother, “as being of the family of David.” If Jude was a known descendant of David, was not Jesus as well? Undeniably!—Jude 1.

2007-02-28 21:40:52 · answer #4 · answered by emafaruk 1 · 1 0

This question has me stumped. But Jesus was born of a virgin woman and he did many miracles so he wasn't a regular human being. Don't forget he ascended to heaven to be seated next to his father so in according to these he was the Messiah.

2007-02-28 21:32:18 · answer #5 · answered by cynical 6 · 0 0

This again?
Yes,He was a descendant of David.There are two line-the legal line (through Jospeh) and the 'physical' line (through Mary).Mary was a descendant of David.
So yes,the prophecy was fulfilled.

2007-02-28 20:37:44 · answer #6 · answered by Serena 5 · 2 1

The mesias shall be a normal person, so, it had to be born out of mary and iosef, no one appears out of nothing. Maybe the friend of jesus disguised the history to make him more special, but he is only a jew like me or like einsten, who knows.

Good question thought.

2007-02-28 20:57:42 · answer #7 · answered by davidhaoman 2 · 0 0

In Jesus dwells ALL the fullness of the Godhead bodily (Col.2:9 below) -


o God the Father

o The Holy Spirit of God the Father

o The Word of God the Father

The only begotten son of God the Father (Jn.1:14 below), Jesus (the Word - Jn.1:1, Jn.1:14 below), His beloved Son (Matt.3:17 below), was conceived of the Holy Ghost (Matt.1:20 below).

It is God the Father who conceived in Mary (blessed among women) His very Word through His very Holy Spirit (Matt.1:20 below).


Col.2:9 For in him dwelleth ALL the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

Jn.1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, (Matt.1:20, Matt.3:17 below)) full of grace and truth.

Jn.1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (Re.1:6, Lk.1:47 below).

Re.1:6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God (Jn.1:1 above) AND his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

Lk.1:47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour (Jn.1:14, Jn.1:1, Re.1:6 above).

Lk.1:68 Blessed [be] the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,

Matt.3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son (Matt.1:20 below), in whom I am well pleased.

Matt.1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost (Jn.1:14, Matt.3:17 above).


Pat (ndbpsa ©)

2007-03-01 21:28:46 · answer #8 · answered by BibleProphecyOnTheWeb 5 · 0 0

It is still his birth right...even if no blood is shared. A father is a father in name. There are loop holes in everything...so why should religion be diffrrent. Its all in the name.

2007-02-28 20:39:25 · answer #9 · answered by Spades Of Columbia 5 · 1 0

He's still the King of Kings and Lord of Lords. Rejoice!!!!

2007-02-28 20:40:27 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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