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2007-02-28 07:02:29 · 19 answers · asked by sahara_springs 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

Jesus healed the male slave of a Roman officer; there's currently a debate about the exact translation of the term that's been rendered as "slave". It might have meant "slave" in the sense of a male concubine.

If that's the case, then it looks like Jesus had no problem whatsoever with gay people.

From the link listed below...

"A classic example is provided in Matthew 8. There, a Roman soldier asked Jesus to heal his "pais." This is a Greek term often used in ancient times to refer to a servant who was his master's same-sex partner. (K.J. Cover, Greek Homosexuality (Harvard University Press, Cambridge, 1978), p. 16). When the soldier said, "Lord, my 'partner' is lying at home paralyzed, in terrible distress," Jesus was immediately compassionate and spoke no words of exclusion or condemnation. He simply said, "I will come and heal him."

In the dialogue that followed, Jesus commended this Roman solider for having more faith than anyone he had ever met and assured him that he would sit down in the Kingdom of Heaven with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. By this miracle of healing, Jesus preserved this loving same-sex relationship. (For more information about the Greek term referred to above and how it should be translated, see the book recommended below.)

The Gospels are clear. Jesus refused to be bound by cultural prejudice. Repeatedly, he took up the cause of the oppressed and defended them against narrow-minded religious leaders."

And from the second link...

"Jesus did not live in Jewish Judea but in pagan Galilee. Here he would surely have been familiar with the Roman army's tolerance for homerotic relations extending across class lines. Jesus knew this was likely a homosexual relationship and by his cure indirectly endorsed it."

2007-02-28 07:07:46 · answer #1 · answered by prairiecrow 7 · 2 0

he never mentioned gay people specifically,but he was a forgiving and understanding kinda guy,so i doubt he would have had a problem with it.his culture did,as well as having a problem with premarital relations,but when a woman was caught in adultery,jesus stopped the villagers from stoning her to death,an apparently popular custom at the time.he shamed the men for their own hypocrasy.so i'm confident in saying,i think he was pretty cool.ps-i'm a happily married straight woman,but i know only god can judge,i would never persecute people for how they were born.i believe in gay marriage-if any 2 people are committed and loyal,who am i,who are we to stop them?why would we want to?marriage/family has been a blessing to me,i hope everyone can have this kind of happiness!

2007-02-28 07:09:25 · answer #2 · answered by kyra k 4 · 1 0

here is my position on this one. jesus alayhesallam was a prophet that came in to the jewish people. he brought no new laws. he never said that he was here to change the jewish faith. only to enlighten the people so that they might obey the rules god had sent forth to them. what ever the torah says about gays is what the man was sure tobelieve in considering he believed in god. all the religious monotheistic faiths speak against gays. jews, christians, and muslims. it is very clear about gay people. they are wron and when acting on their feelings they will go to hell. but only god knows the fate of each and every one of us.

2007-02-28 08:13:57 · answer #3 · answered by wedjb 6 · 0 0

Greek

2007-02-28 07:07:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well Jesus was also God, and here's what God says, I think he would hate the sin but love the sinner. Just like he did with tax collectors and everyone else.

In Genesis 19:1-29 the cities of Sodom and Gommorah were destroyed because the people were so wicked. The men of the city wanted to have sex with other men. So God's judgement on the city was to destroy it by raining down burning sulfur on Sodom and Gomorrah.

Leviticus 18:22 (speaking to men in Israel) "Do not have sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman; that is detestable."

Leviticus 20:13 "If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads."

Romans 1:26-27 "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion."

1 Corinthians 6:9 "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor male prostitutes, nor homosexual offenders...will inhereit the kingdom of God."

1 Corinthians 6:13 "The body is not meant for sexual immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord for the body."

1 Timothy 1:8-10 "We know that the law is good if one uses it properly. We also know that the law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, for the sexually immoral, for those practicing homosexuality, for slave traders and liars and perjurers."

2007-02-28 07:10:24 · answer #5 · answered by cnm 4 · 0 3

I'm sure he didn't really care since in the Bible it never said anything about him having dealings with gay men but I'm sure a lot of people will tell u it's a sin yada yada ya.

2007-02-28 07:06:30 · answer #6 · answered by missgigglebunny 7 · 1 1

Jesus reaffirmed the law throughout his ministry so many times you couldnt count if you tried. A huge part of the law was making sexual sin forbidden. It is detestable to God just as it is to sacrifice your children to the farming God or to have sex with an animal.

'Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable. -Leviticus 18:22

2007-02-28 07:19:45 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

There are no direct references to homosexuality by Jesus that we know of. However, there are SEVERAL passages dealing with divorce. How curious!

2007-02-28 07:28:21 · answer #8 · answered by TransyMAJ 2 · 0 0

what do you mean? He wasn't gay! anyway homosexuality is against the Catholic religion! We don't support gay couples. Jesus had no position with gay men! whatever that means. Jesus was/is against it, but he still loves the person himself. I

2007-02-28 07:09:47 · answer #9 · answered by Trisha 4 · 1 3

Jesus is not recorded to have said anything specifically. References to this sin in the NT are made by Paul.

2007-02-28 07:06:58 · answer #10 · answered by BaseballGrrl 6 · 1 1

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