How would the Greek Bible writers know to differentiate the spelling of 'Jesus' in the NT from 'Joshua' in the OT in what would become the Latin and various English translations if they are both the same name? The NT was written in Greek originally, not Hebrew, as that was the common language of the time (many years after Jesus' death).
2007-02-28 05:26:39 · 3 answers · asked by Cinnamon 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There's no "zsh" sound in Greek, which is why Joshua/Yeshua is transliterated to ιησους - there's no way to reproduce the more gutteral Hebrew to the soft and vowelly Greek.
The discrepancy, of course, is because the old testament is written in Hebrew and Aramaic (bits of Daniel), and the new testament is written in Greek. In the Septuagint version of the Old Testament, the biblical warrior Joshua is spelled the same (ιησους) so there's no difference.
2007-02-28 05:41:39 · answer #1 · answered by evolver 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The Greek spelling of Jesus is "Iesous."
"Joshua" is not the English spelling of Yeshua. Joshua (Hebrew "Yahowshuwa") means "Jehovah is salvation." The name is derived from the name "Yeshua," which is simply "Salvation."
"Yeshua" is Jesus' true Hebrew name.
2007-02-28 05:32:56 · answer #2 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 2⤊ 3⤋
We are not the body of Jesus: made under the law.
We are are the body of Christ: the end of the law.
Peace with God(Grace) is "through Jesus->Christ".
http://www.godshew.org/Bibles.htm
POINT: conversion is from law to grace.
ChanGed is "from glory to glory" (2Cor3).
Understanding = "grace glory" (Prov 4).
"With all thy getting, get understanding".
Because it's all "allegory" in both "covenants": Galatains 4,
Translators of the Bible used the most appropriate words.
Such was not only unanimous among all the translators,
but open to the scrutiny of all learned men in the kingdom.
http://www.godshew.org/BibleTranslators.htm
The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ with you all. Amen.
2007-02-28 05:42:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 4⤋