This is all I could find for you:
- /p/, /t/, /c/, and /k/, when word-initial and low-toned, are pronounced /b/, /d/, /ɟ/, and /g/
- /pʰ/, /tʰ/, /cʰ/, and /kʰ/, when word-initial and low-toned, are pronounced /p/, /t/, /c/, and /k/
So it seems to me that there is a correlation between the removal of aspiration and introduction of voicing with low tone, but that seems like the pitch is changing the consonant, rather than the other way around.
From Wikipedia, it seems that voiced prefixes probably introduce low tones, whereas the unvoiced prefixes introduce the high tones.
Good luck! Hope this helps.
2007-02-28 04:29:40
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answer #1
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answered by ndrw3987 3
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The simple answer, I believe, is that it does not. If you were to select a specific language, then there might be a better answer. In Cantonese, for example, the presence of a final consonant does have an effect on the tone of the word.
2007-02-28 05:19:08
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answer #2
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answered by Fred 7
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I think it's effect is like the same as a first impression. It sets the "tone" for the word.
2007-02-28 03:56:04
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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2016-09-30 00:32:05
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answer #4
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answered by intriago 4
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Which language family are you exactly referring to?
2007-02-28 03:55:42
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answer #5
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answered by Cristian Mocanu 5
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