This seems absurd, as nobody could read at the time, plus everybody in the Middle Ages already believed in God anyway. It must have something to do with their own philosophy and how they consider these proofs. Why were they written? I have to write a paper about it and few literature is known. Thanx for any help in advance!
2007-02-28 00:17:08 · 2 answers · asked by Odin 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I'm not familiar with Anselm, but Aquinas' work seems solely aimed at those who already accept the Bible as a source. I'm not sure why they were written, but it seems it was a "primer" for new converts. Sorry I couldn't answer your question more thoroughly.
2007-02-28 00:32:31 · answer #1 · answered by kristalshyt 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would have thought that the proof was meant for the educated elite of the Age of Reason, and not for the laymen. Renaissance mind sought to find reasons for every belief or non-belief alike.
2007-02-28 08:44:05 · answer #2 · answered by chandro 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋