Language has form, grammar and spelling but dialect has no accepted written form.
2007-02-27 20:44:48 · 12 answers · asked by voorscherm 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Not an easy question to give a single all-encompassing answer to !
The simple rule is that dialect A and dialect B constitute distinct languages if they are mutually unintelligible. But things are not usually as simple as that. A good example of that is colloquial Arabic. As you move from west to east and north to south, you encounter various major dialects: Mauritanian, Maghrebi, Egyptian/Sudanese, Lebanese, Iraqi, Hejazi, Najdi, Hadhramawti etc. Whereas someone from the Maghreb will not find it that difficult to understand someone from Egypt, he will find it virtually impossible to understand someone from the Hadhramawt. So it becomes very difficult to say how many distinct languages there are among the dialects of colloquial Arabic. The same thing applies to any language continuum, for instance, dialects of Akan in Ghana (Brong, Ashanti, Akwapem, Fante) or dialects of Rajasthani in India.
A second complication arises from political considerations. For instance, some people would say that Norwegian and Swedish are merely dialects of one language, as they are mutually intelligible. Or, take Serbo-Croat, which used to be thought of as a single language; but now that Yugoslavia has split up, Serbian, Croatian and Bosnian all claim to be different languages.
Incidentally, while it may be true that dialect has no accepted written form, each dialect DOES have form and grammar.
2007-02-28 04:41:56 · answer #1 · answered by deedsallan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is a distinction to be made between an accent (variations in pronunciation) and dialect, where, although the language is basically the same, there are differences in vocabulary and sometimes also grammar. It is not true to say that dialect has no accepted written form. Swiss German is often written and if you vocalise what is written, then you can understand it.
2007-02-28 04:56:09 · answer #2 · answered by cymry3jones 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Children, children, let's not fight - you're all correct you know.
By layman's definition, a dialect is a localized language form whose usage is limited to certain groups of people. On the other hand, a language (i.e., lingua franca or official language) is a form of wriiten and oral communication widely-used by the majority of the population, both in official business and in day-to-day affairs.
It's really hard to illustrate examples here in the USA coz it's all English everywhere - diff. accents notwithstansding.
But in Europe, Asia and Africa, you'd really see and appreciate the difference between language and dialects. In the Philippines, for instance, we have over 100 known dialects and 3 official languages (English, Spanish and Pilipino).
It's true, language has form, grammar and spelling (asker's words, not mine) but to say that dialect has no accepted written form is not quite true. I believe linguists have already resolved this issue.
Okay, everybody, SMILE!
2007-02-27 21:31:39 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No because the changes are not sufficient enough. They still hold the same language form. While the people speaking different dialects of a same language form come into a social gathering they speak the same language.
2007-02-27 20:58:02 · answer #4 · answered by zerosopher 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It's not another language, just a variation of a language. You can call it a new language if other speakers of the main language (e.g. English) can't understand the dialect at all, not just in terms of vocabulary, but also syntax and grammar.
2007-02-28 04:20:35 · answer #5 · answered by jammycaketin 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO, a Language is unique, is the main root of the dialect. For example Spanish, Italian, Portuguese, Gallegos. They are now languages the main root of them LATIN, disappeared while their dialects continue preexisting, and from being a dialect they became a language.
2007-02-27 23:10:35 · answer #6 · answered by alex 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. They are just a different form of the same language, that is why they are not another language. Are you saying that British people speak English? Americans speak another language etc? That is crazy!!! It is still English, just a different dialect!!!
2007-02-27 20:54:46 · answer #7 · answered by Leeza 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no because its called dialect. Its not another language its dialect.
2007-02-27 20:47:46 · answer #8 · answered by Sass 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no a dialect is just a slight variation iof the language.
2007-02-27 20:49:49 · answer #9 · answered by murnip 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
But dialect is those words and synonyms and antonyms that are localised to a specific area.
2007-02-27 21:11:36 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋