2007-02-27 18:38:23 · 4 answers · asked by AlexTan 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Engineering
So that it does not load down a source and cannot be loaded down by a load. But that is true for only the common use of being a voltage controlled and controlling device.
2007-02-27 19:19:43 · answer #1 · answered by sciquest 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They work with volts. Ideally, they should require zero amps.
Thats why the input should ideally have infinite impedance.
As for the output? Well, that's trying to be an ideal voltage source.
Ideal voltage SOURCES, of course, have zero output resistance.
To ensure ALL the voltage generated, is placed across the eventual "load".
2007-02-27 19:20:55 · answer #2 · answered by Alan 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is so that when you are doing the analysis of a circuit using an op amp, you can disregard those things. If you include then, the math gets uglier than it needs to. And, in reality, the commercial products costing pennies closely approach the ideal situation, so the assumption is safe. So assume ideal and ease your math burden.
2007-02-27 19:28:20 · answer #3 · answered by ZORCH 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because they are desingned to be operated at full volume.
2007-02-27 18:40:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋