So that they can at least get the words right?For those of you who actually know something about languages, you would know that today's English translation is less then 80% accurate because several words and entire sentences were translated without consideration to the original words or meanings.I believe that much of the Bible has been lost in translation.
2007-02-26 19:01:13 · 13 answers · asked by BuckFush 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
FYI, I do have an understanding of languages.I would not ask such a question if I was not certain of my knowledge.Before you question my intent with insults perhaps you might try learning Latin, Arabic, and Hebrew and then get back to me with those original quotes.If you can't do it then just say so.And if you can and are unwilling to learn the original languages that the good book was written with then that is not something you should blame me for.
2007-02-26 19:16:01 · update #1
Exactly. Nothing more to be said, you already answered to your own question. Very goid point, though. I agree with you.
2007-02-26 19:07:01 · answer #1 · answered by Ymmo the Heathen 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It depends. For salvation purposes the Bible in any form will do. For scientific purposes it will not. The NKJV says that the Earth was created in 7 days. It eventually goes on to say that a 1000 years to man is as a day to God. Since Earth has an approximate human record of about 7000 years, people have simply assumed this was the age of the Earth. And recently getting in a debate with my father proved that the older generations may never get away from this belief even if it is false as I presume it is. I believe that God created science, so science and God equally co-exist, there is no in-between. Scientists have explained in numerous ways why they think that the Earth is about 4.5 billion years old and I agree with their findings. So either our interpretation of the Bible is false, the hundreds of years of scientific research is wrong, or the Bible is wrong. I find it very easy to see that our interpretation is wrong for various reasons. The most important reason however is that the Hebrew test of which the Bible was written describes "days" in this context as "eras" which could have meant days, years, or millions of years. So the creation of Earth could have been millions of years long b/c that is how long God wanted to take to create the Earth and science backs this up. I suppose some people have have the 7000 year theory beat into their heads too many times to want to consider other possibilities. Either way though, as I already explained, this still has no bearing on whether or not one comes to Christ. It is a sidenote that simply must be examined for individual believers.
2007-02-27 03:15:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No I do not. I myself am not that fine and astute a Bible scholar as you are but since the printed page is enjoyed by the common man. (Kuddos to you by the way for being gifted in that manner to understand the original language of the letter)And we do not live in the dark ages any more. Also that there are many believers of different ethnicity that adhere to the Bible and it's contents; such a requirement is self defeating to these believers. Especially if we were required to know the "writer's intent" or the "original language" and what their usage meant. It would almost be akin to the Jews trying to ensare the Gentiles into their style of faith that bound some to the Old Testament rituals of worship.
It's fine for how it goes. But since God is the author of the Word and many there be that use it; God will be the one to get the glory out of it, and not man. God uses all sincere men of faith, to give wisdom and guidance to those that need a divine word, not by man's wisdom but by God's Spirit. .
2007-02-27 03:28:23 · answer #3 · answered by Uncle Remus 54 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your nuts. You know NOTHING about Bible Translation. Every word is given complete consideration of what that word meant in its original language, usage, context & everyday life. YOU need to do some research into how Translations are made. Your ignorance is appalling....theBerean NOTE: Back at you Buckfish. I do happen to read the original Greek of the N.T. and I repeat. You do NOT know what you are talking about. And by the way, None of the mss. were originally written in Arabic or Latin. So knowing those will not do you much good. And I strongly doubt that you even know those. If you knew ANYTHING about the Languages of the Bible, you would NOT be making such uninformed statements. Sheesh, what a dishonest person you are!...theBerean
2007-02-27 03:08:50 · answer #4 · answered by theBerean 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
You are right. Homosexuals are assailed all the time by verses written by Paul. What many don't seem to know is that the word being translated as "homosexual offenders," is a word that was made up by Paul! What Paul meant by the word is unknown. Up until the last century or two the word was translated as masturbators. This is only one example of where a passage is used to cause damage to others, where the translation is unknown or incorrect.
2007-02-27 03:12:51 · answer #5 · answered by Wisdom in Faith 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Its better to understand bible more deeply when a person studies theology, etc.
But there are few things which can never be wrong, however translated.
Jesus answered, " "Love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.' R191 38 This is the greatest and the most important commandment. 39 The second most important commandment is like it: "Love your neighbor as you love yourself.' R192 40 The whole Law of Moses and the teachings of the prophets depend on these two commandments." Mathew 22:37.
When we do these simple yet difficult things, we recieve God's love, because God sees our heart, unlike man.
2007-02-27 03:18:22 · answer #6 · answered by Brinda 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The yanks would never go along with that. Most can barely read English, never mind learning Latin or Greek.
Then again...if they had no access to the fables because of a language barrier, they would invent them anyway. Just look at the morons - oops, mormons.
.
2007-02-27 03:14:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Quoting the bible has a spiritual implication therefore it is not mandatory that the one quoting should be in the original language this is because the speaker may not have the original language as his first language.
2007-02-27 04:29:18 · answer #8 · answered by desmonds4real 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'd love to have a "good" bible, but you know how hard it is to find one? Let alone one that is dated prior to 1929 so his real name, YHWH, YAHWEH is printed in it.
I have looked on ebay some but most are junk or falling apart.
Just look at www.biblegateway.com and look at how many english version they have alone, its easy to see why fight and bicker, we all think we are reading the same book, be we aren't.
2007-02-27 03:11:45 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Clearly no,because the King James bible is proven to be a transliteration meaning that it is as exact a rendering as can be humanly possible given the differences in languages but it is in its meaning and translation it is exact.
2007-02-27 03:10:48 · answer #10 · answered by fred_osborne13 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I am a trained theolgian and can quote in the original languages if I need to, sir.
For the most literal translations use the ESV and the NASB. Please see:
http://www.geocities.com/bible_translation/compare.htm
As your statistics are incorrect. The bible retains over 98% of its original accuracy from the earliest manuscripts we have available to us.
2007-02-27 03:20:06 · answer #11 · answered by Ask Mr. Religion 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋