I read the passage below* on the net, and I'm still rather confused. Reason being, does someone speaking British English (BrE) have a British 'accent' or would it be referred to as a British 'dialect'?
* "A dialect is usually spoken by people who live in a certain region of a country. Those people speak their mother tongue in their own individual way. For example, many Scottish people have a dialect.
An accent usually describes the way people pronounce words of a language that is different from their mother tongue. For example, Arnold Schwarzenegger speaks English with an Austrian accent."
Okay, so what I've gathered from this passage is that a person raised in Britain would be speaking their mother tongue, so the 'accent' we perceive here in the United Stated should not be referred to as such--it should therefore be referred to as a British 'dialect' instead. Is this right?
2007-02-26
08:12:22
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7 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Languages
Bottom line, does someone speaking British English have a 'British Accent' or are they speaking with a 'British Dialect'?
2007-02-26
08:28:37 ·
update #1