yes, it does make a difference, because then all of a sudden, alma mater doesn't mean a virgin mother anymore, but a teenage pregnancy, hehe.
2007-02-26 06:54:37
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answer #1
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answered by Ymmo the Heathen 7
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What version are you refering to? Some of the newer versions do use "young woman" in that scripture. It word actually means a "covered" or "veiled" woman - and is most often translated virgin.
The tradition of using "virign" comes from the Greek Septugant, the Jewish version of the Old Testament which was used from about 250 BC until after 400AD when the Latin Vulgate was translated. It is from that Greek version that Matthew quotes that scripture. In the Greek, the word is the word for "virgin" (parthenos) in Isaiah 7. Since the word can mean either "young woman" or "virgin", and is elsewhere shown to mean "virgin", that is the word most translations use.
The scripture itself is one of many classic examples of the Bible law of "double reference". The Law required that any prophet who gave a prophecy for a distant - beyond his lifetime - event had to also give a contemporary event. The fulfillment of the contemporary prophecy (within the prophets lifetime) was the proof that the future prophecy was true. In the case of Isaiah 7, the prophet used a word "almawh" with a double meaning. It was fulfilled in Isaiah's life, when a "young woman" (his own wife) bore a son who would be a sign to the king of that era. But looked ahead to the "virgin" (the other meaning of the word) who would conceive and bear a son over 500 years later.
So either "young woman" or "virgin" can be used in the scripture, and the prophecy is still fulfilled. Just at different times and by different women. In fact, it is fulfilled by both.
2007-02-26 07:05:13
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answer #2
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answered by dewcoons 7
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Well, they'd have to wonder what else they're mistranslating, is my guess, and would have to spend serious $$ fixing those errors.
That's a dang good question. I see some people here giving the, "Oh, maiden means the same thing as 'virgin'," which may be true in English, but not in ancient Hebrew. As you know, Isaiah used the term for virgin (betulah) in other places, but in Isaiah 7:14, the verse specifically says:
"A young woman is pregnant" (not "a virgin will be pregnant"). Why do the Christian bibles still use "virgin" and not use the proper verb tense?
2007-02-26 11:20:30
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answer #3
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answered by Kathy P-W 5
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You've been reading publications from Jews for Judaism, haven't you?
Here's the undisputeable truth: what JFJ (and other anti-Christian missionaries) won't admit is that the Septuagint (the Jews' own translation of the OT into Greek) uses the word "parthenos" at Isaiah 7:14. In Greek, this word means "virgin -- one who has never had sexual intercourse." There IS NO OTHER MEANING for "parthenos" than "virgin."
It is true the Hebrew word "almah" describes a virginal, unmarried, young woman. However, the Septuagint PROVES the key meaning to this reference at Isaiah 7:14 is that the young woman would be a virgin.
EDIT: "Kathy PW," you are incorrect about the verb tense used in Isaiah 7:14. Here is the verse copied and pasted from the Jewish Publication Society's Hebrew Bible: "Therefore the L-rd Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." This is CLEARLY future tense.
2007-02-26 06:54:50
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answer #4
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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The bible I use is a translation NOT based on the KJV, and uses the term "maiden" at Isaiah 7:14. Have you seen the book "Truth in Translation"? It has some interesting points on some of the most common English bibles. It rated the bible I use at the top of the list along with the New American Standard Bible. I use the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures- you can ask one of Jehovah's Witnesses for a copy, or check it out online.
2007-02-26 06:59:51
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answer #5
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answered by AMEWzing 5
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What is it refering to?
2007-02-26 06:51:36
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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It is NOT a Mistranslation as you are trying to say.
The word young maiden and virgin would have the same meaning in that time and culture.So you could use both words understanding the time and culture and both would be correct.
2007-02-26 06:55:43
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answer #7
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answered by williamzo 5
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First of all that word has several different meanings. In Hebrew words often carried different meanings, there is no "one" Hebrew word which means "virgin". So that word (alma) is one that was used. It's no mistranslation. Thought you were pretty smart didn't you?
2007-02-26 06:57:54
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answer #8
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answered by Scott B 7
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the word 'almah means a young girl of marriage age - it does not reject, or accept the idea of being a virgin - but it is a hebrew word, and the jewish text has translated it as "virgin" - it is not a "christian thing" but rather a "hebrew thing"
the word has been translated as virgin by jewish scholars for as long as the scriptures have been translated. i would suggest you view hebrew sources on this, and not simply assume it is something christians have been doing :)
2007-02-26 07:08:59
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answer #9
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answered by John O'Keefe 3
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i might choose the potential of training of hundreds of hundreds of scholars around the centuries who've studied scripture nicely and long. They let us know that the translated verses confer with an eternal torment for people who reject God endlessly. If some contemporary meant student has declared himself or herself to have the capacity to starting to be a greater useful translation than hundreds of hundreds of alternative scholars around the centuries, just about all of whom comply with the uncomplicated doctrine of Heaven and Hell being in sacred scripture, i think that the renowned meant student is an insignificant pseudoscholar greater boastful than scholarly. You wrote: <> i've got self assurance that "be conscious" is a lie, just about actual promulgated by people who hate God and loathe people who love God. References to Hell and the torment of Hell are sparkling in scripture. Mistranslations of a single be conscious does no longer supply upward thrust to the sparkling understanding of Hell as a place of eternal torment. i'm Roman Catholic. Peace be with you.
2016-11-26 00:31:48
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answer #10
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answered by ? 4
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I dont know, that's why I am very selective about what I beleive in the bible. I wish more Christians were like that too.
However I dont know what religion you are, but all religions do things like this,so I wouldn't go around pointing fingers at Christians just because you disagree with them. You should just use your common sense to fill in the parts that dont make sense to you. God gave you common sense for a reason you know.
2007-02-26 06:54:14
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answer #11
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answered by Cuppycake♥ 6
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