If Jesus spoke Aramaic and Pontius Pilate spoke Latin, how did they converse with no interpreter?

Answer 1

Who says there wasn't an interpreter? Just because it isn't mentioned, doesn't mean that there wasn't one.

Besides, even today, there are ambassadors who learn the host language. During the first century A.D., Greek was a common language. It is likely that both Jesus and Pilate could speak to each other using that.

Regardless, it isn't important. These things have nothing to do with salvation. Reading into what isn't there, or taking out of what isn't there is what causes division.

Paul tells us, "...not to go beyond what is written..." (I Corinthians 4:6)

Answer 2

Thoughtful question! Pilate probably spoke in Greek, not Latin.
Jesus may have spoken in Aramaic, maybe Hebrew, maybe in the same commonplace Greek as Pilate. After all, in many cultures it is not uncommon at all to have two or more different languages floating around everywhere - and for people to easily shift from one to the other.


But the bible does not say there was no interpreter. There certainly might have been.

god bless

Answer 3

Sho-nuiff. back then the "interlingua" used between different nationalities was koine greek. Pilate definitely did speak greek, ity was required for all province governors. And Jesus coming from galilee was more helenized and cosmopolitran than the people in Judea i.e jerusalem area.

It's not unlikely then that they both spoke in greek.

Besides that, Pilate could have definitely spoken aramaic, he being the governor of the region, is almost obvious.

Also, Jesus could have also spoke latin, which was very very common at the time.

Answer 4

Koine Greek was the common language EVERYONE knew to do business throughout the Roman Empire... you couldn t be the simplest of tradesmen without knowing Greek which business done in because of all the different nationalities moving around the Roman Empire... that true of even common fishermen in Judea... having said that, Aramaic was indeed the first language of native Jews there at the time and it would have been almost as ridiculous for Pilate not to be well versed in Aramaic as the governor there as for a US ambassador to Argentina not to know and be able to speak in Spanish... So, they could easily have spoken in Koine Greek or Aramaic (which is also how Pilate would have spoken to the crowds/rabble and their representatives shouting "crucify him"... interpreters not necessary for basic conversations altho possible... and as has been mentioned most cultures throughout history don t have as much problem as we do being bilingual, especially when you are colonized/dominated by a superior power that does predominant business in that other 2nd language throughout your land

Answer 5

Israel was an occupied territory, Jesus spoke at least 2 languages, Hebrew(as needed for reading scriptures) and Aramaic, the common language of the area. I see no problem with both of them being fluent in both languages.

Answer 6

What makes you think they were not both speaking Latin? Or, both Aramaic? Jerusalem was a major metropolitan city. Many spoke Greek. I'm sure a learned man like the Roman Governor spoke the local language. I mean, can you imagine the U.S. ambassador to Mexico not speaking Spanish?

Answer 7

Jesus' native tongue was Aramaic, but with the Roman occupation of Jerusalem, I'm sure he would have had to know a great deal of Latin just to survive. It would be like not speaking English in the U.S.--you might be able to get by, but it would be very difficult, especially since all police commands would be in English, official documents, etc.

Answer 8

Scholars say that the common language of the Middle East at the time was Greek

Answer 9

They likely both spoke several languages. Many of the more educated did.

Answer 10

Pilate didn't speak latin, what are you talking about? I'm sure he was fluent in aramaic. The bible was eventually written in latin but not until much later.