I am not sure what that endorses..
2007-02-25 22:51:27
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answer #1
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answered by XX 6
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It was customary in those days for a couple to be betrothed at least 1 year (and sometimes longer) before marriage. What so many people don't understand is that the couple was actually considered married during this time, yet they were prohibited from having sex and living together. At this time, God didn't recognize a cohabitating man and woman as married -- proof may be found at John 4:17-18. A formal ceremony was required, much like today.
During the betrothal period, the bride was closely scrutinized by both families to ensure she was chaste. What Paul is saying is that if both are so tempted to have sex before marriage (which is a sin), it is better to let them marry than to enforce the celebacy any longer.
So no, Paul doesn't endorse sex before marriage here.
2007-02-25 22:53:25
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answer #2
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answered by Suzanne: YPA 7
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This has nothing to do with pre-marital sex. Read verses 34-38. this concerns those who serve in the church and goes back to what Paul said that it was better not to be married if a person serves in the church because marriage produces divided loyalty. Nowhere does Paul condone pre-marital sex. Pre-marital sex is fornication. Under ancient Jewish law (the book of Leviticus) a couple caught in fornication were required to get married. If anything, Paul's statement in verse 36 is designed to prevent fornication, saying that if two people fall into weakness and are tempted into committing fornication, then it is better for them to marry immediately than to fall into sin. Jesus said that even the thought of fornication is a sin. Paul gives us a solution to such thinking.
2007-03-05 22:44:12
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answer #3
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answered by Preacher 6
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No.
Marriage is of God, not people. There is no direction on when a marriage starts in the Bible. There are a lot of traditions that People have that they teach as the "will of God" and they will use scripture to try and prove that some specific ceremony/license/contract/procedure is required to be married.
Only the Holy Spirit knows if someone is married. If the Holy Spirit tells you that someone is not married then you know. If you say someone is not married because the Holy Spirit told you, and the Holy Spirit did not tell you.....well that comes awful close to bearing False Witness against the Holy Spirit.
Mark 7:6-9
6 He answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me. 7 Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men. 8 For laying aside the commandment of God, ye hold the tradition of men, as the washing of pots and cups: and many other such like things ye do. 9 And he said unto them, Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition.
No, Paul was not endorsing Sex without Marriage. Paul knew only the Holy Spirit can join a man and woman in marriage.
PS: Tob 4:13 is the book of Tobias included in the Apocraphya (sic?) commonly included in Catholic Bibles and originally included in the King James version, but, not included in Bible Constantine put together. These passages do not tell you when a marriage starts either.
PPS: The word fornication in the Bible was translated from the word {por-ni'-ah} which means:
1) illicit sexual intercourse 1a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc. 1b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18 1c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12 2) metaph. the worship of idols 2a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
Fornication is not sexual intercourse, rather it is pornographic or perverted intercourse.
PPPS: Christ chose 11 apostles from among his disciples, replacing Judas with a 12th Apostle. Christ chooses Apostles, not men.
2007-02-25 23:20:09
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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No, he did not. Otherwise, he would be contradicting what he said in 1 Corinthians 7:9, which in reality explains what he was referring to in this verse, "But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn." He was saying that it is not a sin for someone who is married to engage in sexual relations. And this goes right along with what Hebrews 13:4 says, "Marriage is honourable in all and the bed undefiled."
2007-03-05 18:42:09
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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No he is not endorsing sex before marriage, What Paul has said is very simple, He said if a man is dating a girl, & they can not contain themselve, or control their sexual desires, then let him marry his girlfriend, to keep them from committing sin if she is old enough to marry, Because she has to be pass the flower of her age, which means she has to be old enough to marry, We don't go around & marry a 8 or 9 yera old, that is wrong, we married someone that is older.
2007-02-25 22:57:09
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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1corinthhians 7:36--Paul is referring to a man and his daughter, He is saying that a man who will not allow his daughter to marry is doing so without sin. To marry his daughter--in old English is to get her married to someone.In the Greek it has a duo meaning. The probable age referred to is about 20.
Let him do whatsoever he will is incorrect a better translation what soever he wishes---viz. marry his daughter. Daughters were the personal property of their fathers...so to speak...thus to marry your daughter was to give her to a Groom. It is clear in context that "if the passions are strong" refer to the daughter and her boyfriend. She has passed her flower age but it is o.k. for them to wed, even if she is older. Let the prospective groom "do as he pleases" i.e. marry her or the father marries her to him.
I hope this helps
2007-03-05 14:55:08
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answer #7
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answered by j.wisdom 6
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"It is written (Tob. 4:13): 'Take heed to keep thyself. . . from all fornication, and beside thy wife never endure to know a crime.' Now crime denotes a mortal sin. Therefore fornication and all intercourse with other than one's wife is a mortal sin." - St. Thomas Aquinas ("Summa Theologica" 13th century A.D.)
"Fornication is carnal union between an unmarried man and an unmarried woman. It is gravely contrary to the dignity of persons and of human sexuality which is naturally ordered to the good of spouses and the generation and education of children. Moreover, it is a grave scandal when there is corruption of the young."
"Among the sins gravely contrary to chastity are masturbation, fornication, pornography, and homosexual practices."
2007-02-25 22:59:45
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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You are using a very "loose" translation, but any good literal version does not present it that way. Even so, even in the version you quoted it does not say that they were involved in sex before marriage, nor does that verse in any way condone it. In the NASB (Literal translation) it even uses the word virgin,and in fact so does the KJV. You should not make the Bible say what it does not.
2007-02-25 22:59:41
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answer #9
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answered by oldguy63 7
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Paul tells them to marry rather than sin. How can you criticize that? The getting married part is not a sin!
2007-02-25 22:56:30
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answer #10
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answered by great gig in the sky 7
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no,,,,,As far as I can understand the message what his trying to explain to us is that there is nothing wrong to enjoy the pleasure of sex,,,but you need to marry your woman first,It only means if you cant control yourself,you have so much passion to one another then its not a sin its ok because it means you love each other deeply but do it with the blessings of marriage
2007-03-05 02:54:50
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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