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2007-02-24 15:36:51 · 6 answers · asked by deisel 2 in Arts & Humanities History

during the medieval ages, after the byzantine empire

2007-02-24 16:01:55 · update #1

6 answers

Drop the word "How" from your question, and it becomes valid.

And the answer would be, "NO!"

As proof, look what happened to all of the communist bloc countries.

2007-02-24 15:43:17 · answer #1 · answered by Guncrazy 4 · 1 0

Eastern Europe was never more advanced politically, culturally or economically even during the Middle Ages.

In fact, The Hanseatic League, an organization of German soldier-merchants, dominated the trade of northern Europe during that time and often wielded more power in Scandinavia (Norway, Sweden, Denmark) than the native rulers did. The Low German language even almost replaced the native languages of Scandinavia during that time. In their book "Words - the evolution of western languages", Phil Howard and Victor Stevenson even tell the story of one Norwegian in the year 1489 who was stabbed to death by another Norwegian when he told him to stop speaking German, and speak Norwegian.

In Southern Europe, the Italian city states of Genoa and Vencie were the strongest economic powers. They almost succeeded in taking over the proud city of Constantinope and what was left of the Byzantine Empire in Greece and Turkey. However, the Ottoman Turks changed all that when they arrived in the 13 and 1400's from Central Asia via Iran (Persia).

I will say this though, Ardy619, that Western Europeans owe Eastern Europeans (especially Poles and Hungarians) a debt of gratitude for stopping the Mongol armies of Ghengis Khan. Somebody told me once that were it not for a handful of Poles and Hungarians, I would be sitting on a yak and speaking Mongolian today. I think they were basically right. While the Poles and Hungarians were never able to defeat the Mongols decisively in any one battle, they apparently inflicted enough causualties on the Mongol warriors that they decided to halt their westward migration and retreat back into Asia after about 1260.

2007-02-25 04:25:24 · answer #2 · answered by Brennus 6 · 0 1

if you mean after the fall of Rome until around the rennissance: Eastern Europe was more politically advanced because the church did not control government, economically advanced because they had access to trade with India, Middle East, and China, you should be able to find more detailed information fairly easy. most history books and sites will have this- even wikipedia should

2007-02-24 23:48:53 · answer #3 · answered by seraphicangel04 1 · 1 0

When are you speaking of? At any point in the last thousand years, western Europe has surpased eastern Europe politically, culturally and economically.

2007-02-24 23:40:55 · answer #4 · answered by ahab 4 · 0 0

I agree. It's like asking what made Charles Darwin such an enthusiastic supporter of the Genesis creation story.
AND in the period you write of - E.Europe was dominated by plundering hordes like the Avars. Life was nasty, brutish and short.

2007-02-25 02:01:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

of what era??? cold war??? well advanced in politically, well they had communism, which spread the wealth, but soviet Union did not have good culture or economy. when stalin got power he hated farmers and killed most of them, ending up in 14.5million citizens starving for noreasons, and 20million dieing because of his political ideas. now were they advanced???

they did militalize, and areonotical science wise they were advanced remember yuri gagarin? first man in space, he was Soviet

2007-02-24 23:41:36 · answer #6 · answered by cb450t 3 · 0 0

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