Well, my boyfriend and I are planning to purchase a house within the next month. I am putting down $100,000 and he is only putting down $20,000. If we ever marry then divorce, would the $100,000 I put down on the house be considered pre-marital property since the house was purchased way before we were married? Is there any way to make sure I get my $100,000 back in the event of a divorce?
2007-02-24
14:03:55
·
6 answers
·
asked by
kelbell80
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics