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help me please.
is it true for any value of x?
thank u!

2007-02-24 12:18:57 · 4 answers · asked by Ganbatteru 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

sin(x) = cos(pi/2 - x)

To prove this, all you have to do is use the cosine addition identity, which states that
cos(a - b) = cos(a)cos(b) + sin(a)sin(b).

RHS = cos(pi/2 - x)
= cos(pi/2)cos(x) + sin(pi/2)sin(x)
= (0)cos(x) + (1)sin(x)
= sin(x)
= LHS

2007-02-24 12:22:56 · answer #1 · answered by Puggy 7 · 0 0

Since Cos(-x) = cos(x) You can show:

Cos(pi/2 - x) = cos(x-pi/2) (multiply the interior by -1)

Since sin(x) and cos(x) are offset by pi/2, the phase shift in your cos(x-pi/2) will equate the two.

Yes, it is true for ANY value of x

2007-02-24 12:27:44 · answer #2 · answered by Modus Operandi 6 · 0 0

cos(a-b) = cos(a)*cos(b) + sin(a)*sin(b)
a = pi/2
b = x

cos(pi/2-x) = cos(pi/2)*cos(x) + sin(pi/2)*sin(x)
cos(pi/2-x) = 0 * cos(x) + 1*sin(x)
cos(pi/2-x) = sin(x)

2007-02-24 12:24:05 · answer #3 · answered by radne0 5 · 0 0

cos((pi/2) - x) =
cos(pi/2)cos(x) + sin(pi/2)sin(x) =
0cos(x) + 1sin(x) =
sin(x)

so

cos((pi/2) - x) = sin(x)

2007-02-24 12:57:42 · answer #4 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 0 0

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