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You would not own any land. In France, the King of France owned all the land. The Count of Toulouse, for example, held a huge area of land in the south of France from the King as a fief. The Count of Toulouse had inherited the county from his father. For this fief, he owed the King of France homage, loyalty, support in warfare, and various money or labor duties. Other barons held smaller areas of land from the count as fiefs. These barons inherited the rights to their fiefs from their fathers. At the bottom, knights held areas of land called manors from their lords as fiefs. The knights had inherited the manors. The manor was supposed to have as much land as could support the knight, grow crops enough to feed everyone, and support the craftsmen needed to make the manor self-sufficient. There was no money to buy anything from outside. No one showed how rich they were. The knights lived in a genteel poverty. When the lord went to war, the knight was supposed to be armed and ready to follow. That was the condition of the knight's having the manor.

2007-02-24 13:55:54 · answer #1 · answered by steve_geo1 7 · 0 0

the fact that you owned land in the medieval period shows you were rich!!!!

however the "rich" varied.v several acres was wealthy - about middle class. several hundred acres was really wealthy and thousand plus acres was bill gates wealth

2007-02-24 20:22:23 · answer #2 · answered by max power 3 · 0 0

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