Why is the point (0,0) or the origin on the graph of every direct variation function, but not on the graph of any inverse function?
2007-02-24 10:50:18 · 3 answers · asked by smzeldarules 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
In a direct variation, y=kx, where k is constant. If x=0, then y must equal 0, regardless of the value of k. That is why (0,0) is on the graph of every direct variation.
However, in an inverse variation, y=k/x, x can never be 0. This is because any number divided by 0 is undefined. This is why there are the asymptotes in the graph of an inverse variation function. The graph gets closer and closer to the asymptotes, but will never reach them. This is because the value of y is undefined with x is 0.
2007-02-24 10:57:43 · answer #1 · answered by shugo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
direct, y = kx, and for x = 0, y = 0
inverse, xy = k, and for x = 0, y = k/0 which is undefined.
2007-02-24 18:57:17 · answer #2 · answered by Philo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
difficult factor. query on google. it can assist!
2014-11-13 22:31:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋