2007-02-23 16:05:18 · 8 answers · asked by abpitcrew 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because she was pregnant and he knew he wasn't the father. Seems a perfectly reasonable response for the times, no?
2007-02-23 16:07:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
While Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, but before they were united, she was found to be pregnant by holy spirit, and the account states: “However, Joseph her husband, because he was righteous and did not want to make her a public spectacle, intended to divorce her secretly.” Since engagement was such a binding arrangement among the Jews at that time, the word “divorce” is properly used here.
If an engaged girl submitted to having relations with another man, she was stoned to death the same as an adulteress. In cases that might result in stoning an individual to death, two witnesses were required in order to establish the person’s guilt. Obviously, Joseph had no witnesses against Mary. Mary was pregnant, but Joseph did not understand the matter thoroughly until Jehovah’s angel gave him the explanation. Whether the ‘secret divorce’ he contemplated would have included the giving of a certificate of divorce or not is not stated; but it is likely that Joseph was going to act in accord with the principles set out at Deuteronomy 24:1-4, possibly giving her the divorce in front of just two witnesses so the matter would be settled legally without bringing undue shame on her. While Matthew does not give every detail regarding the procedure Joseph intended to follow, he does indicate that Joseph wanted to deal mercifully with Mary. Joseph is not considered an unrighteous man for this, but rather, it was “because he was righteous and did not want to make her a public spectacle” that he “intended to divorce her secretly.”
2007-02-23 18:29:52 · answer #2 · answered by BJ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Joseph considered divorcing Mary because she was pregnant and they had not "been together". In that culture, she had dishonored him, or so it seemed. Even if they stayed together, they would be dishonored, simply because they had slept together before marriage. He stayed with her because he believed the angel who told him that Mary's baby was the Son of God, and that she had not been unfaithful to him and was still a virgin.
2007-02-23 16:12:29 · answer #3 · answered by janejane 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because he though Mary has an affair with some other man (men) and hence was pregnant.
Chances are, even in this time, if you realised your wife is pregnant with some other person's child, most men will feel like divorcing too. Can't blame him there.
2007-02-23 16:09:44 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
social pressure of the times.
this was before he was aware of God's intervention and plan.
not so different than many cultures today, 'cept hollywood.. :)
2007-02-23 16:10:44 · answer #5 · answered by pops 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He really didn't, but they threw that in there because she was pregnant and they weren't married yet.
2007-02-23 16:08:21 · answer #6 · answered by Justsyd 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because he thought that she was cheating on him
2007-02-23 16:11:18 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
......SHE DIDN'T PUT OUT ENOUGH!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2007-02-23 16:08:46 · answer #8 · answered by ESAVVY1 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋