this is about sex right? So if a gay man lays with a woman he does nothing sexual. So then laying with a man not as he lays with a woman could include sex right?
Biblical loophole?
2007-02-23 09:57:20 · 14 answers · asked by hot carl sagan: ninja for hire 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
BOY - YOU ARE A CLEVER ONE !
2007-02-23 10:00:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
no, you see when it says lay with man as he lays with woman its not just about sex. Its saying in general, that men should not lust after other men. But think about this if a gay man lays with a woman he is commiting something because hes having sex with her and thats a sin unless your married, but why would a gay man be married to a woman? and no sir, there are no biblical loopholes. God is far cleverer than you are or anyone on this Earth for that matter, so keep diggin but you'll only find the truth through your doubt.
2007-02-23 10:05:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
One of the practicalities so many people forget is that in the time the Old testement was written infant mortality was rampant and so was disease. Tribes, Kingdoms, and Religions all want more adherents. The one thing a man "laying with" another man cannot produce is a baby. There were a lot of babies need to expand members of Tribes, Kingdoms, and Religions. . . I guess you could put this "God's Law" on a par with rules like the cloven hoof dietaries we no longer bother about.
I betcha you never heard of that kind of common sense answer on this subject.
2007-02-23 10:10:17 · answer #3 · answered by Terry 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Everyone interprets the Bible in their own subjective ways and usually in the way that benefits them most. The Bible was used to justify the MURDER of millions of people during the Crusades and the Inquisitions. The Bible has no innate truth and even the religious fundamentalists constantly argue about what it actually means.
2007-02-23 10:06:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
you're a little all over the place in your reasoning. The word lay in this context means sex. Effectively that a man should only have sex with a woman, not another man, not an animal... a woman. Plain and simple, you believe you are finding a loophole because you want to find one and are using illogical reasoning to try and force it.
2007-02-23 10:02:51 · answer #5 · answered by nemsethcszardescu 3 · 4⤊ 3⤋
The bible has clear guidelines on sex, which is only permitted in marriage between a man and a women. There no loop holes. Man on man sex in wrong and women on women sex as wrong and an unmarried man and women having sex is wrong (Fornication) and a man and women where one or both are married to another having sex is wrong (adultery).
2007-02-23 10:04:55 · answer #6 · answered by handsomeworshipper 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Let us now discuss the difference between the letter of the law and the spirit of the law... No, wait, I don't acknowledge that "law" anyway, since it only had to do with increasing the size of the Hebrew tribes.
2007-02-23 10:12:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
To lay with, in a Biblical sense, is to fornicate. There are no loopholes in the Bible.
2007-02-23 10:03:52 · answer #8 · answered by michael m 5 · 4⤊ 3⤋
Um... yeah!! Sweet loophole! Spread the word, man.
2007-02-23 10:01:13 · answer #9 · answered by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7 · 4⤊ 2⤋
It didn't say a gay man, it said a man ... nope, no loophole.
2007-02-23 10:04:20 · answer #10 · answered by Dino 4 · 3⤊ 2⤋
And would this allow hermaphrodites to lay with everybody or nobody?
2007-02-23 10:01:22 · answer #11 · answered by Blackacre 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋