Explain to me why Christians don't think the rules in Leviticus apply anymore?

Question

I mean I can spot a few pretty much everyone has broken. This is God's will, and God's will never changes. I've been told that Jesus fulfilled these.....that doesn't really make sense to me.....fulfilled how?

Answer 1

There is a new covenant now, and those old rules never applied to gentiles in the first place.

"Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah, not like the covenant which I made with their fathers when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, my covenant which they broke, though I was their husband, says the Lord. But this is the covenant which I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put my law within them, and I will write it upon their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people." (Jeremiah 31:31-33)

"And he took bread, and when he had given thanks he broke it and gave it to them, saying, 'This is my body which is given for you. Do this in remembrance of me.' And likewise the cup after supper, saying, 'This cup which is poured out for you is the new covenant in my blood.'" (Luke 22:19-20)

"In speaking of a new covenant he treats the first as obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away." (Hebrews 8:13)

Answer 2

The rules of Leviticus were meant for atonement of the people from their sins. It deals with giving to God and the Levites, or the priests. It dealt with the requirements God had for people to live to be acceptable to Him. Jesus is the Messiah, who was promised by God. He paid the ultimate sacrifice to atone for the people once and for all. Jesus said the most important thing was to love God and do His will and all other things were secondary. He fulfilled the law and the prophets by finishing them as being the Messiah. Does that help? If you would like to continue this discussion please contact me.

Answer 3

Okay. I can tell you that Jesus fulfilled the Law in Leviticus. He was the only one who did, and the only one who could.

Now with that, I give you this, a text from the source that I form my beliefs from;
Romans 3:21 But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify.
22 This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference,
23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
24 and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus.
25 God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26 he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.

It's not about trying to be a observer of the Law. It's about trusting God through Jesus that one is saved.

Answer 4

You know. I have wonder the same thing. I ask someone the same question a couple of weeks ago and he told me that God was talking to us. I said, well in this case, the ten commandments dont apply either. He was speechless. People take what the want out of the bible. yes, Jesus can to fullfil. We are not under the law because Jesus freed us from the law. Not the law of today. But from the law of sin. I hope I helped.

Answer 5

The Levitical laws, as Chr-stianity would have it, are not timeless expressions of truth that apply as moral absolutes but were pictures and symbols of he who was to come: J. That is why we speak of him as "fulfilling" them. As far as the moral laws go, these were just expressions of the two great commandments: love G-d first, love your neighbor as you do yourself. The OT agrees that these were the heart of the Levitical rules ("Obedience is better than sacrifice," "I desire mercy and not sacrifice," etc.), and Paul points out that he who obeys these two commandments with his heart cannot break the laws. J. himself points out that there are exceptions to the Levitical rules in his healings on the Sabbath ("which of you will not pick up his sheep, if it stumbles, on the Sabbath?" and "David ate the shewbread on the Sabbath," and "the priests 'defile' the sanctuary on the Sabbath"). These examples strengthen the assertion that these laws were not moral absolutes inherently, but manifestations of the true nature of morality that man could never, in himself, fulfill. Does this make sense? Sorry, it's a little convoluted. I'm writing off the top of my head.

Answer 6

Because everything in the OT had to do with cleaness and uncleaness(sanctification) or with judgement. Both of these things have been dealt with by Christ for now. According to the NT inaugurated by Christ and expounded by the Apostles it is explicitly said we are not under the Moses' law but a new dispensation under Christ as our Lord, we are not to judge as they did under that law, that doesnt mean you dont point out what is wrong but that we don't sentence to death anymore, and as far as cleaness we are clean now throught Christ .

Answer 7

Jesus fulfilled this in His life and death. being sinless, He did not commit anything against the OT or NT. He died and nailed all of our sins on the cross with Him and then defeated death when he was raised from the dead. we are under the new covenant of grace. God's grace which is because Christ lived and died sinlessly.

Answer 8

Christ fulfilled the barbaric laws in Leviticus--by canceling them.

Answer 9

Dear Friend,

Consider this Scripture from Gods word the bible.

Romans 10:4Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

5Moses describes in this way the righteousness that is by the law: "The man who does these things will live by them."[a] 6But the righteousness that is by faith says: "Do not say in your heart, 'Who will ascend into heaven?'[b]" (that is, to bring Christ down) 7"or 'Who will descend into the deep?'[c]" (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead). 8But what does it say? "The word is near you; it is in your mouth and in your heart,"[d] that is, the word of faith we are proclaiming: 9That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 10For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified, and it is with your mouth that you confess and are saved. 11As the Scripture says, "Anyone who trusts in him will never be put to shame."[e] 12For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him, 13for, "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved."[f]

Christ is the end of the mosaic law, this is not only because Jesus knew that the Gospel was going to be preached to the Gentiles, but also because when Christ was crucified, he died to pay the price for all of our sins, after this event all believers were justufied by faith.

I hope this answers your question

God Bless

Answer 10

Sparing the theological mumbo jumbo, who in their right mind would support applying Leviticus anymore?

Few Orthodox Jews in Israel would.