2007-02-22 13:39:44 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It doesnt say that. Have it confused with His disciples and they didnt speak in tongues as per say. They spoke in the others native tongue and they understood them. Peace out..................
2007-02-22 13:45:09 · answer #1 · answered by powerliftingrules 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible does not record that Jesus spoke in tongues. This was a part of the promise to be fulfilled after he ascended to the Father so that he could impart his Spirit (the same spirit in him - being God's spirit) into man, as recorded in the Book of Acts (which you should read by the way).
There are however many deeds which Jesus did that was not recorded. The New Testament gospels were not intended as a minute by minute account of Jesus every single action and words spoken, but a summary if you will, of Jesus message and life and death and resurrection.
There are miracles not recorded, sermons he preached not recorded and so on.
2007-02-22 14:48:31 · answer #2 · answered by Victor ious 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
At Pentecost anybody heard the disciples of their own language. Jesus traveled and the two spoke in tongues so as that anybody heard Him in there very own language or became waiting to communicate many languages. The bible does not say the two way in spite of the undeniable fact that it does say that he did extra miracles than could nicely be written, tongues could have been a ingredient of a few of them. people will debate tongues till the day we flow domicile and be with the Lord than we are going to now no longer ought to invest, we are going to be attentive to totally as a substitute of partly.
2016-12-18 09:02:28 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible makes mention that all the works Jesus did could not be written. We cannot confirm or deny this claim.
The speaking of tongues came AFTER Jesus ascended and the Holy Ghost filled the room at Pentacost. Nowhere does it say it was done before or it has ceased before this time.
It was a sign of a believer being filled with the Holy Spirit.
2007-02-22 13:51:37 · answer #4 · answered by n9wff 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
For me to know of, it didn't mention JESUS speaking in tongues at all...but it did mention his followers doing so. Actually, in the New Testament, any mention of this refers to after Jesus' ascension...at which point God would send the Holy Spirit to be our guide.
If you read:
And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues. (Mark 16:17)
"All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them." (Acts 2:4)
"For they heard them speaking in tongues and praising God." Acts 10: 46
"When Paul placed his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied..." Acts 19:6
Actually, speaking in tongues is one of the many Spiritual gifts that God bestows upon his believers. That doesn't mean all believers will do this. It means that in some believers, this manisfestation will take place.
Read 1 Corinthians 12: 4 - 11
*verses 6,7 - which validates my point literally.
2007-02-22 13:56:05 · answer #5 · answered by redglory 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you mean Book of Acts (2:1), I Corinthians 14:2 The King James Version, 1 Cor 14:14-19, 1 Cor 14:39, 1 Cor 14:5
2007-02-22 13:54:38 · answer #6 · answered by Mike J 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Sorry, no tongues for Jesus. And there is a good reason for it. Jesus was sent to Israel (he said so) and therefore he only needed to speak their language.
Tongues is first mentioned in Acts on Pentecost. The Apostles (and perhaps other disciples) were given the gift of speaking in "tongues" (which means languages) because they were sent "to all the world" and therefore they needed to speak to all sorts of people (Acts lists a number of different nationalities there for the feast).
2007-02-22 13:47:04 · answer #7 · answered by Mark Y 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, it is pretty much implied that most of them spoke in tongues. More than likely they all knew Hebrew, Greek, and Latin (those three languages where put on His cross), and some knew Aramaic. Jesus probably knew all of these, especially Hebrew and Aramaic. He might have also known Egyptian.
Here is some proof:
Mr 5:41 And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her, Talitha cumi; which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say unto thee, arise.
Mt 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
Mr 15:34 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
2007-02-22 13:53:22 · answer #8 · answered by Shawn D 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Frank: It doesn't say that He "spoke in tongues" other than the different dialects in force in His days on the earth.
2007-02-22 13:44:03 · answer #9 · answered by guraqt2me 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe it comes from the book of Acts on the " Day of Pentecost ". Read that, it is where speaking in tongues comes from.
2007-02-22 13:46:16 · answer #10 · answered by The Angry Stick Man 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋