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Having sex IS NOT Oral or Anal, but VAGINAL, what makes this a good or a bad statement, is it correct or incorrect and why?

2007-02-22 03:35:52 · 12 answers · asked by Friend 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

12 answers

I belives it is common knowledge the ranch hands understand they is adifferent price on each of them fun spots.I reckon they has ta figure which one the girly is bestes at or what they isa in the mood fer.

2007-03-02 00:49:19 · answer #1 · answered by Hang em first,try em later 2 · 0 0

Sexual intercourse is vaginal yes, but I have never had sexual intercourse without first having oral sex or having the male touch me, etc.

Sex is whatever you want it to bed, each time I have had anal sex I have always started with oral and vaginal sex and then moved on to anal so I count all of these as acts of sex. I very rarely have oral or anal without having vaginal sex before, during or after.

I think this statement can be interpreted any way but sex is any sexual act unless it is vaginal penetration, then the correct name for that would be sexual intercourse.

2007-02-23 23:37:02 · answer #2 · answered by renee.emily 4 · 1 1

If sex is not oral or anal and only vaginal, then a lot of prostitution charges need to be dropped. I've never purchased the services of a prostitute, but I'm guessing that they don't limit themselves to vaginal intercourse and I'm sure that the criminal charge of prostitution is not dependent upon vaginal intercourse.

2007-03-02 09:31:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

When I was a kid, you were a virgin until you experienced vaginal or (for gay men) rectal penetration. Virginity is not what you asked about, but yes.... oral sex is just that, oral sex and rectal sex is rectal sex. (That's why we call it sex). So, in my opinion, the question is probably about virginity, and that is not a cut and dried answer. By the way ... what about masturbation done by yourself or another? Is that sex? Very gray area, indeed!

2007-03-02 11:36:01 · answer #4 · answered by gervoi 3 · 0 0

Sex is defined as an act of procreation, therefore, oral, anal, masterbation, etc. is not sex.

2007-02-22 12:21:51 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

ORGANS SHOULD BE USED ONLY FOR THE PURPOSE ASSIGNED FOR THEM BIOLOGICALLY SEX WAS CREATED BASICALLY FOR PROCREATION AND NO MATTER HOW HARD ONE TRIES PREGNANCY CANNOT BE GOTTEN BY ORAL OR ANAL SEX.DEBASING HUMAN BEHAVIOR CAN ONLY ULTIMATELY LEAD TO HARM.

2007-03-02 10:05:15 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Listen to Svetlana. Sex is for procreation so anything that cannot lead to procreation isn't truly sex and is an abomination. Sex servers a useful purpose and that purpose isn't enjoyment or entertainment. Those other acts are nothing more than unnatural perversions called sodomy which are morally wrong and illegal.

2007-02-23 01:09:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

4. Someone told me the Church teaches that oral sex is wrong even for married couples. Is that true?

It seems there are many troubled consciences out there looking for sound guidance on this issue. I’d even guess that the first thing many readers did when they got this book was to look up this question. So, what does the Church teach? It depends on what you mean by “oral sex.”

There’s nothing that singles out the genitals as being “unkissable” as part of a husband and wife’s foreplay to intercourse. The term “oral sex,” however, most often refers to acts in which orgasm is sought and achieved apart from an act of intercourse. Indeed, many couples consider such behavior a desirable alternative to normal intercourse. And yes, this is wrong, even for married couples - though the clarification made above regarding female orgasm is applicable here as well: It’s not objectively wrong if the wife achieves climax as a result of oral stimulation, so long as it’s within the context of a completed act of intercourse.

Oral copulation (that is, to the point of ejaculation) is simply not material. It effects no ‘communion of persons’ between the spouses. It’s the consummation of nothing. It involves a severance of the pleasure of orgasm from the responsibility of fertility. It fosters a husband’s tendency to objectify his wife. For these reasons, it does not and cannot symbolize and participate in the free, total and fruitful love of God. It does not and cannot symbolize the marriage bond or renew a couple’s vows.

Furthermore, while there’s nothing wrong per se with oral stimulation of the genitals as foreplay to intercourse, such expressions require the greatest degree of purity and reverence so as never to degrade the goodness of marital intimacy. This kind of purity is possible, but it’s also quite easy (especially for men, I’d say) to cross the line between love and lust, between intimately affirming the goodness of each other’s bodies (and receiving that affirmation) and merely seeking to gratify base desire at each other’s expense. As the saying goes, “from the sublime to the ridiculous is but a step” Spouses must always be sensitive to how easy they could take that step if they are to avoid it.

It should go without mentioning that a spouse who is uncomfortable with such behavior should never be pressured into performing it. (Again, for what ever reason, it’s usually husbands who exert pressure upon their wives.) Pressure exerted on a spouse to perform acts with which he or she is uncomfortable - even if they’re not objectively wrong - indicates lack of respect for that spouse. It’s a clear indication of having long since crossed the line between genuine love and self-seeking.

5. What about anal sex?

Again, it depends what you mean by the term. A husband should never intentionally ejaculate anywhere but in his wife’s vagina. There’s nothing inherently wrong with anal penetration as foreplay to normal intercourse. Still, there are some important health and aesthetic considerations that can’t be overlooked.

Pardon the frankness, but vaginal penetration following anal penetration would be unsanitary as to require some thorough anti-bacterial cleansing of the husband’s penis to avoid health risks. There are other health considerations as well. Thus anus and rectum are simply not biologically designed to accommodate a penis. Penile penetration can cause trauma to the rectal wall (for example, tearing or bruising). Not a few people who engage in “anal sex” on a regular basis have bowel problems.

Furthermore, the excretory function of the rectum raises some basic aesthetic questions. What does anal penetration symbolize? Is this an act of beauty? Is it truly loving to subject one’s wife to the health risks? Why would a couple want anal penetration to be part of their foreplay to normal intercourse on any kind of regular basis? What desire does it purport to satisfy?

Since anal penetration is in so many ways a parody of vaginal intercourse, I’d pose the following question to those who are attracted to it as a form of foreplay: Why not just skip that step with all its health risks and unseemliness and enjoy the real thing with your spouse as God designed it?

2007-02-22 12:05:21 · answer #8 · answered by Giggly Giraffe 7 · 0 2

cause we sometimes defines sex as anything that arouses us.and really the act of procreation

2007-03-02 08:51:48 · answer #9 · answered by dustin m 1 · 0 0

This is open to individual interpretation.

2007-03-02 08:27:46 · answer #10 · answered by just me 4 · 1 0

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