she had sex after she was married, and she had children WITH her husband
2007-02-22 02:43:52
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answer #1
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answered by diva 6
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First, you have to understand that the languages of the time didn't have words for 'aunt', 'uncle', 'cousin', 'nephew', or 'neice'. Your aunt would have been called mother, your uncle would have been called father, your cousins would have been your brothers and sisters. So the Biblical conversation about Jesus's brothers and sisters is, in itself, inconclusive.
As for the 'ever virgin' part, basically that's just making all the more clear the concept that Mary was given special dispensation to be born without original sin, called the Immaculate Conception, since she could not otherwise be the vessel of God's Incarnation.
Truth be told, the Bible says nothing conclusively one way or the other as to whether Mary had other children or not. Some non-scriptural writings indicate that Joseph died very early in Jesus's life, so it may have been not so much that Mary didn't desire to have sex but simply that she may not have had a chance to.
2007-02-22 02:47:26
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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It is a matter of semantics and a play on words. The word "Virgin" according to my Random House Webster's College Dictionary, the word Virgin can also mean: "an unmarried girl or woman." So Marry could have been unmarried at the time of conception. Also this is very important, the meaning of the word Sin had changed over time. Back then, the meaning was to break the law or to miss the mark. It had nothing to do with sexual intercourse.
2007-02-22 03:07:01
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answer #3
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answered by MoPleasure4U 4
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The Fact that she is virgin dosent have to do with original sin. She may have been without original sin but that dosent have anything to do with sex. So I dont think you know eneough about the religion to comment intelligently.. It isn't "inserted" as you put it, into the religion but a part of it.
The real question is why does this seem to bother you so much? If a group of people in Africa prayed to a big rock they found would that bother you too? Why does it matter to you?
Get over it and go back to your faithless life.
2007-02-22 02:52:32
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answer #4
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answered by ddjjnevins 1
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properly, we see that verse slightly in any different case, yet in simple terms slightly. human beings use "all" whilst they do no longer incredibly recommend each and everyone extremely generally. One might say "I devour pizza each and all of the time". they do no longer incredibly recommend that they devour pizza at each 2d of on a daily basis. We see Romans 3:23's use of "all" like that - a generalization. "All" does no longer recommend actually "all". Jesus replaced into guy. He did no longer sin, suitable? So he replaced into an exception to the all. If he could be, why will no longer be able to Mary. Mary's sinlessness originates in the parallels between the previous testomony and the recent. there is an previous and new covenant. Jesus is the recent sacrificial lamb. Baptism is the recent circumcision. We evaluate Mary the recent ark of the covenant. in case you examine the define of the ark in the previous testomony, you will see that it had to be made up of the purest textile a threat to comprise God. So Mary, being the vessel of God, had to be organic too. Mary's sinlessness is referred to as a assertion approximately Christ! If Mary replaced into no longer organic, she ought to no longer have been the vessel of God made guy, which might recommend Jesus will no longer be able to be God. So we've faith that for the trinity to exist, Mary had to be organic, i.e. sinless.
2016-10-16 06:02:58
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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It is the official position of the Roman Catholic Church that Jesus' mother Mary remained a virgin for her entire life. Is this concept Biblical? Before we get into looking at specific Scriptures, it is important to understand why the Roman Catholic Church believes in the perpetual virginity of Mary. The Roman Catholic Church views Mary as "the Mother of God" and "Queen of Heaven." Catholics believe Mary to have an exalted place in Heaven, with the closest access to Jesus and God the Father. Such a concept is nowhere taught in Scripture. Further, even if Mary did occupy such an exalted position, her having sexual intercourse would not have prevented her from gaining such a position. Sex in marriage is not sinful. Mary would have in no way defiled herself by having sexual relations with Joseph her husband. The entire concept of the perpetual virginity of Mary is based on an unbiblical teaching, Mary as Queen of Heaven, and on an unbiblical understanding of sex.
So, what does the Bible say about the perpetual virginity of Mary? Using the New American Bible, which is a Catholic translation of the Bible, we can see that the perpetual virginity of Mary is not taught in the Bible. Matthew 1:25 NAB tells us, "He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus." He, Joseph, did not have sexual relations with her, Mary, UNTIL after she bore a son, Jesus." The meaning of this Scripture is abundantly clear. Joseph and Mary did not have sexual relations until after Jesus was born. Matthew 13:55-56 NAB declares, "Is He not the carpenter's son? Is not his mother named Mary and his brothers James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas? Are not His sisters all with us?" Catholics claim, correctly, that the Greek terms from "brothers" and "sisters" in these verses could also refer to male and female relatives, not necessarily literal brothers and sisters. However, the intended meaning is clear, they thought Jesus to be Joseph's son, the son of Mary, and the brother of James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas, and the brother of the unnamed and unnumbered sisters. Father, mother, brother, sister. It is straining the meaning of the text to interpret brothers and sisters as "cousins" or "relatives" with the mentioning of Jesus' mother and father.
Matthew 12:46 NAB tells us, "While He was still speaking to the crowds, His mother and His brothers appeared outside, wishing to speak with Him." See also Mark 3:31-34; Luke 8:19-21; John 2:12; and Acts 1:14. All mention Jesus' mother with His brothers. If they were His cousins, or the sons of Joseph from a previous marriage, why were they mentioned with Mary so often? The perpetual virginity of Mary cannot be drawn from Scripture. It must be forced on Scripture, in contradiction to what the Scriptures clearly state.
2007-02-22 07:36:23
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answer #6
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answered by Freedom 7
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There's nothing in the Bible that says the other children Joseph's from his first marriage. I, too, wonder what historical documents they rely on for that information. I hope somebody puts some information up here.
2007-02-22 02:47:13
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answer #7
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answered by cmw 6
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Either because it's true, or because the concept of a man defiling the woman that bore Jesus Christ was just too much to bear.
That's why religion isn't a cult - you can choose not to believe in some stuff, and still be a member.
2007-02-22 02:45:03
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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I don't know. When I asked catholics in my family this question, they didn't believe me, and when I pointed out those bits in the bible, they told me they didn't want to have this conversation right now
2007-02-22 02:49:28
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answer #9
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answered by murnip 6
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Trying to promote the idea that sex is somehow dirty.
If you can actually convince someone of this it's a great way to induce guilt.
Like God made earth girls look so great so I could feel guilty about looking at them.
Yea right.
Love and blessings Don
2007-02-22 02:47:30
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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Matthew says ,Joseph did not "know" her until after Jesus was born.Which indicates afterward ,he did.The Catholics want a pagan "Queen Of Heaven "like the old Babylonians did.If Mary was here she would say "Listen to my Son,do all that He says".
2007-02-22 02:46:32
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answer #11
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answered by AngelsFan 6
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