Whom is an indirect object pronoun when a preposition precedes it, as in to whom, from whom, of whom, about whom, etc.
It is a direct object pronoun when no preposition precides it, as in the person whom, the teacher whom, whom did I kick?, etc.
Who is the subjective pronoun, as in who kicked me?, I know who it was, etc.
You can tell because 'whom' is the person 'receiving' the action, or being acted upon. When you are required to use a preposition to translate the action into words, it is indirect (or intransitive), and when you don't need a preposition, it is direct (or transitive).
For your second question, all three are correct, although you could technically drop the 'whom' altogether on the second and it would still be acceptable.
2007-02-22 02:46:59
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answer #1
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answered by James, Pet Guy 4
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I am pretty proficient in English grammar. However, one thing confuses me. English books always define indirect objects as that which answer "to whom?" and "for whom?" In the following sentence, "Cindy ordered from the menu a large order of chicken," Chicken would clearly be the direct object, answering "What did Cindy order?" The indirect object, on the other hand, would appear to be "menu," but it would answer the question, "From what did Cindy order the chicken?" It does not answer "to whom?" or "for whom," but rather "from what?" Is "menu," therefore, an indirect object or not?
2014-02-11 09:51:24
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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I kicked the ball to John.....Direct object = the ball, Indirect object = John.
Whom can be used for both.
I kicked John....You kicked whom?
I kicked the ball to John..You kicked the ball to whom?
The boy who kicked me.
One way to remember is this..If you can substitute I or He..it is
who.
If you can substitute Me or Him..it is whom.
John kicked him....so John kicked whom
He kicked John.......so who kicked John
Sorry if that's a bit difficult to follow..I tried.
2007-02-21 23:13:02
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The first and third are correct.
Whom is an indirect object and preceded by a preposition.
In the second sentence the 'who/whom' is superfluous, but since it refers to the subject of a passive sentence, it is still the subject and should therefore be 'who'. Bet you didn't want to hear all that!
2007-02-21 22:11:04
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answer #4
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answered by cymry3jones 7
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properly Princess Diana is an instantaneous Noun, something of the sentence looks oblique via fact there's a particular charity it rather is being stated, so i might say that it rather is an oblique merchandise. i do no longer think of that a individual is seen to be an merchandise in English grammar.
2016-11-24 23:31:11
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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they are all correct.
who is a subjective pronoun.
whom can be a direct or indirect objective pronoun.
2007-02-21 22:05:25
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answer #6
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answered by Wing commander 3
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For whom the bell tolls. Great song.
Both correct I think.
2007-02-21 21:12:42
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answer #7
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answered by Mum-Ra 5
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I have to agree with everyone else. All of them are correct (although the second one does perhaps sound more dated than the rest).
We can't all be wrong!
2007-02-22 02:28:48
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answer #8
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answered by chibookoo 2
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All of them
2007-02-22 00:48:12
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answer #9
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answered by skaters mam 3
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Get out more
2007-02-21 21:18:03
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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